multiple choice questions

Multiple Choice Questions

2011-12-31T04:39:00.000-08:00

HP QuickTest Professional software is an advanced, automated testing software for building functional and regression test suites. It captures, verifies, and replays user interactions automatically and helps testers quickly identify and report on application effects, while providing advanced functionality for tester collaboration.

Just check your knowledge on QTP by answering these Multiple Choice Questions on QuickTest Professional (QTP)

HP Quality Center software is an industry-leading, global quality management software solution. It lets you manage the quality process for delivering high-quality applications efficiently and effectively. HP Quality Center brings structure to your testing projects and stores information in a central repository. Because HP Quality Center is Web-based, all members can access critical project information-regardless of geographic and organizational boundaries.

Check your knowledge on Quality Center by answering these Multiple Choice Questions on HP Quality Center

HP LoadRunner helps you:

Obtain an accurate picture of end-to-end system performance before going live.
Verify that new or upgraded applications meet specified performance requirements.
Identify and reduce performance bottlenecks during the development lifecycle.

Check your knowledge on LoadRunner by answering these Multiple Choice Questions on HP Loadrunner

PHP is a widely-used general-purpose scripting language that is especially suited for Web development and can be embedded into HTML. PHP is a scripting language originally designed for producing dynamic web pages. It has evolved to include a command line interface capability and can be used in standalone graphical applications.

Check your knowledge on PHP by answering these Multiple Choice Questions on PHP

Acceptance Testing - Multiple Choice Questions

2010-12-29T21:48:00.002-08:00

Acceptance Testing - Multiple Choice Questions

1)
User Acceptance Testing (UAT) is a process to obtain confirmation that a system meets mutually agreed-upon requirements.

A) True
B) False

2)
Alpha Testing & Beta Testing are not part of UAT.

A) True
B) False

3)
Three major objectives of acceptance testing:

A) Confirm that the system meets the agreed upon criteria
B) Identify and resolve discrepancies, if there is any
C) Determine the readiness of the system for cut-over to live operations
D) Making sure that the critical module is bug free

4)
The acceptance test engineer may create an ............. document to communicate the deficiency in the acceptance to the supplier.

A) Acceptance Caution Change (ACC)
B) Acceptance Test Change (ATC)
C) Acceptance Criteria Change (ACC)
D) Acceptance Execute Change (AEC)

5)
Acceptance tests, also known as, customer tests and functional tests, validate the customer's view of the application. They are distinct from unit tests, which validate the programmer's view of the software internals.

A) True
B) False

6)
Accountability for software acceptance does not belong to the customer or user of the software.

A) True
B) False

7)
Acceptance testing and System testing is one and the same thing.

A) True
B) False

8)
The user must assign the criteria the software must meet to be deemed acceptable. Ideally, this is included in the ........

A) software requirements specifications
B) Project Plan
C) Use Cases
D) Both A & B

9)
Acceptance tests are written by the customers, with assistance from developers/testers only when requested.

A) True
B) False

10)
Acceptance test plan must include an explanation of how defined quality factors or objectives of acceptance testing activities will be achieved, during acceptance testing.

A) True
B) False

11)
It is usually not possible to do exhaustive acceptance testing but it is limited to sampling and governed by the sampling errors.

A) True
B) False

12)
Acceptance testing may happen at any phase of development in Waterfall model.

A) True
B) False

Answers

1)a, 2)b, 3) a,b,c 4) c, 5)a, 6) b, 7)b, 8) a, 9)a, 10) a, 11)a, 12) b

Defects - Multiple Choice Questions

2010-12-29T21:48:00.000-08:00

Defects - Multiple Choice Questions

1)
A .......... is an existing defect that has not yet caused a failure because
the exact set of conditions were never met.

A) mutant defect
B) BKSU defect
C) latent defect
D) delayed defect

2)
A ........ is an existing defect that hasn’t yet caused a failure
just because another defect has prevented that part of the code from being
executed.

A) mutant defect
B) masked defect
C) latent defect
D) delayed defect

3)
If a defect is delayed for later phases it proves more costly.

A) True
B) False

4)
Defect ............ is a defect which is caused by another defect. One defect
triggers the other defect.

A) smoothing
B) cascading
C) tracking
D) massaging

5)
Normally, the impact ratings for defects are classified into three types:

A) Minor, Low, Critical
B) Low, Major, Critical
C) Minor, Major, High
D) Minor, Major, Critical

6)
The main focus of ......... is to reduce defects and variations in the processes.

A) QA
B) QC
C) Six Sigma
D) None

7)
Defect ....... is a technique that was developed to estimate the number of
defects resident in a piece of software.

A) Density
B) Seeding
C) Age
D) Latency

8)
DRE () is a powerful metric used to measure
test effectiveness.

A) Defect Removal Efficiency
B) Spoilage
C) Age
D) Latency

9)
Defect Spoilage is:

         Sum of number of Defects X End Phase
A)  = ----------------------------------------------
              Total number of defects

        Total number of defects X Discovered Phase
B) = ----------------------------------------------
               Total number of defects

        Sum of number of Defects X Discovered Phase
C)  = ----------------------------------------------
               Total number of defects

        Sum of number of Defects X Discovered Phase
D)  = ----------------------------------------------
               Defects found by customer

10)

Three simple steps below refer to:

Analyze defects or errors to trace the root causes.
Suggest preventive actions to eliminate the defect root causes.
Implement the preventive actions.

A) Defect Prevention
B) Defect Tracking
C) Defect Age
D) Defect Risks

11)
Which of the following is not a state of a defect in defect life cycle:

A) New
B) Open
C) Verified
D) Deferred
E) Critical

12)

........... happens when defect introduced in one phase passes to another phase without getting caught in the phase-end verification or validation activities.

A) Defect Cascading
B) Defect Prevention
C) QC
D) Defect Leakage

Answers

1) c, 2) b, 3) a , 4) b 5) d, 6) c, 7) b, 8) a, 9) c, 10) a, 11) e, 12) d

Audits - Multiple Choice Questions

2010-12-29T21:47:00.003-08:00

Audits - Multiple Choice Questions

1)
Various types of quality audits are:

A) product
B) process
C) management (system)
D) registration (certification)
E) All of above

2)
When the auditor is an employee of the organization being audited (auditee), the audit is classified as an ........ quality audit.

A) internal
B) external
C) compliance
D) Both A & B

3)
The most comprehensive type of audit is the ......... system audit, which examines suitability and effectiveness of the system as a whole.

A) quantity
B) quality
C) Preliminary
D) sequential

4)
Each of the three parties involved in an audit ......................... plays a role that contributes to its success.

A) the client, the auditor, and the auditeer
B) the client, the auditor, and the audite
C) the client, the moderator, and the auditee
D) the client, the auditor, and the auditee

5)
An audit is usually conducted in three steps:

(1) A pre-examination or opening meeting with the auditee marks the beginning of the process.
(2) involves a suitability audit of the documented procedures against the selected reference standard.
(3) the auditor examines in depth the implementation of the quality system.

A) True
B) False

6)
The audit final report should include, at a minimum, the following:
(choose the one NOT required)

1. Type of audit conducted
2. Characteristics of audit
3. Identification of involved parties: auditor, auditee, and third party
4. Audit team members
5. Critical nonconformities and other observations
6. Audit standards and reference documents used
7. Determination of proper corrective action(s)
8. Duration of audit

A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 8

7)
The time required and costs involved in an external audit are much higher as compared to internal audits.

A) True
B) False

8)
Audit is a fact-finding process that compares actual results with ......................

A) specified standards and plans
B) expected results
C) premature results
D) preliminary results

9)
The ......... is also expected to provide the resources needed and select staff members to accompany the auditors.

A) auditor
B) client
C) internal auditor
D) auditee

10)
For the benefit of the organisation, quality auditing should only report non-conformances and corrective actions, but should not highlight areas of good practice.

A) True
B) False

Answers

1)e, 2)a, 3) b, 4) d, 5)a, 6) b, 7)a, 8) a, 9)d, 10) b

SCRUM - Multiple Choice Questions

2010-12-29T21:47:00.001-08:00

SCRUM - Multiple Choice Questions

1)
The scrum approach originated with agile software development as practitioners looked for ways to ..............

A) improve communication
B) increase throughput
C) increase risk
D) All of Above

2)
Although Scrum was intended for management of software development projects, it can be used to run software maintenance teams, or as a general project/program management approach.

A) True
B) False

3)
The main roles in Scrum are:

A) ScrumMaster
B) Product Owner
C) Team
D) Person

4)
Scrum eliminates many of the tasks required of a lead because teams become self-organizing.

A) True
B) False

5)
In scrum the team activity is monitored and coordinated on ......... basis.

A) hourly
B) daily
C) weekly
D) monthly

6)
Scrum is iterative. The iteration is called .........

A) sprite
B) IT1
C) sprint
D) sprinte

7)
The ................. is responsible for maximizing return on investment (ROI) by identifying product features, translating these into a prioritized feature list, deciding which should be at the top of the list for the next Sprint, and continually re-prioritizing and refining the list.

A) Scrum Master
B) Product Owner
C) Manager
D) Team

8)
The team in Scrum is seven plus or minus two people.

A) True
B) False

9)
The ScrumMaster and the Product Owner can be the same individual;

A) True
B) False

10)
The first step in Scrum is for the Product Owner to articulate the product vision. Eventually, this evolves into a refined and prioritized list of features called the ..........

A) Sprint Backlog
B) Whiteboard
C) Product Backlog
D) All of above

11)
The team meets daily for ...... minutes, where each member of the team discusses the work they’ve completed since the last meeting

A) 10
B) 12
C) 15
D) 20

12)

................. are of scrum principles.

A) Time-boxes
B) Cross-functional teams
C) Open communications within team.
D) All of above
E) Both A & B

13)
Users & Stakeholders in scrum are Interested in results but not responsible for deliverables.

A) True
B) False

14)
Scrum was formalized over a decade ago by ......... and it’s now being used by companies large and small.

A) Ken Schwaber
B) Dr. Jeff Sutherland
C) Ken Sutherland,
D) Jeff Schwaber

Answers

1)a,b 2)a, 3) a,b,c 4) a, 5)b, 6) c, 7)b, 8) a, 9)b, 10) c, 11)c, 12) d, 13)b, 14)a,b

Test Case Design - Multiple Choice Questions

2010-12-29T21:46:00.001-08:00

Test Case Design - Multiple Choice Questions

1)
Good test case has a reasonable probability of catching an error.

A) True
B) False

2)
..................... can be used to design good test cases.

A) Equivalence Classes
B) Parameterizing
C) Boundary Values
D) trimming

3)
By applying .................... we minimize the redundant test cases.

A) Equivalence Partioning
B) Parameterizing
C) Boundary Values
D) trimming

4)
Generally, a test case also specifies the expected outcome from executing the SUT under the specified execution conditions and test inputs.

A) True
B) False

5)
Devising a set of test cases that will guarantee that all errors will be detected is somewhat feasible.

A) True
B) False

6)
We can have one or more test cases covering the requirements.

A) True
B) False

7)
............. test cases are like a green light for the application and help to determine whether or not the application should go into production.

A) System
B) Acceptance
C) Critical
D) Performance

8)
In order to write black box test cases we need the .................

A) requirement document
B) design
C) project plan
D) All of above

9)
................... help you to design a series of test cases that have a high likelihood of finding errors

A) requirement document
B) software testing techniques
C) project plan
D) SRS

10)
Test case design focuses on a set of techniques for the creation of test cases that meet overall testing objectives.

A) True
B) False

11)
White-box testing, sometimes called ..........., is a test case design method that uses the control structure of the procedural design to derive test cases.

A) gray box testing
B) glass-box testing
C) steel-box testing
D) Coding testing

12)
In order to generate effective tests at a lower cost, test designers analyze the following sources of information:

A) Requirements and functional specifications
B) Source code
C) Input and output domains
D) Operational profile
E) Fault model
F) Both A & E
G) All of above

Answers

1)a, 2)a,c, 3) a, 4) a, 5)b, 6) a, 7)b, 8) d, 9)b, 10) a, 11) b, 12)g

Performance Testing - Multiple Choice Questions

2010-12-29T21:45:00.005-08:00

Performance Testing - Multiple Choice Questions

1)
Some more specific reasons for conducting performance testing include:

A) Assessing release readiness
B) Assessing infrastructure adequacy
C) Assessing adequacy of developed software performance
D) Improving the efficiency of performance tuning
E) All of above

2)
Performance Testing and Tuning is one and the same thing.

A) True
B) False

3)
Performance is concerned with achieving ..................... that meet the performance objectives for the project or product.

A) response times, throughput, and resource-utilization levels
B) response times, throughput, and stress levels
C) reason times, throughput, and resource-utilization levels
D) response times, click-through, and resource-utilization levels

4)
Performance Testing explores several system qualities, that can be simplified to:

A) Speed
B) Capacity
C) Scalability
D) Stability
E) Partition

5)
............. is the process of comparing your system’s performance against a baseline that you have created internally or against an industry standard endorsed by some other organization.

A) Comparison Reports
B) Benchmarking
C) Bench-staging
D) Compare-marking

6)
Performance, load, and stress tests are subcategories of performance testing, each intended for a different purpose.

A) True
B) False

7)
While collecting requirements for performance testing, it is important to decide whether they are .........., that is to ensure that the performance requirements are quantified and validated in an objective way.

A) measurable
B) scalable
C) testable
D) Objective

8)
Performance testing plan includes the details about test bed setup.

A) True
B) False

9)
Performance testing occurs before functional testing.

A) True
B) False

10)
Typical Performance metrics include:

A) Performance Vs users
B) Performance Vs time
C) Hits per hour
D) average amount of data downloaded per company visit.

Answers

1)e, 2)b, 3) a, 4) a,b,c,d 5) b, 6) a, 7)c, 8) a, 9)b, 10) a, b

Alpha Beta Testing - Multiple Choice Questions

2010-12-29T21:45:00.003-08:00

Alpha Beta Testing - Multiple Choice Questions

1)
Alpha testing is done before the software is made available to the general public

A) True
B) False

2)
Alpha testing occurs first and when the software passes that, beta testing can then be undertaken or beta testing can be undertaken before Alpha testing also if needed.

A) True
B) False

3)
In beta testing, unlike Alpha testing, people ............. .. the company are included to perform the testing.

A) outside of
B) inside of
C) who are head of
D) both a & b

4)
The main goal of both alpha & beta testing is to test run the product to identify and fix any bugs after application release.

A) True
B) False

5)
Beta testers are selected from the potential user population and given the ......... version of software for testing.

A) post release
B) release
C) true release
D) pre release

6)
Alpha and Beta testing are not the last phases of development.

A) True
B) False

7)
Difficult to produce the best test environment is one of the drawbacks of beta testing.

A) True
B) False

8)
BETA in "BETA Testing" is an acronym..

A) True
B) False

9)
Alpha & Beta testing are 100% compulsory and product CANNOT be released without these two types of testing.

A) True
B) False

10)
Beta Testing can be used in lieu of load testing.

A) True
B) False

Answers

1)a, 2)b, 3) a, 4) b, 5)d, 6) a, 7)a, 8) b, 9)b, 10) b

Code Inspection - Multiple Choice Questions

2010-12-29T21:45:00.001-08:00

Code Inspection - Multiple Choice Questions

1)
The goal of the inspection is to identify defects.

A) True
B) False

2)
An inspection is regarded as a proper testing activity rather than an activity to evaluate a work product for suitability.

A) True
B) False

3)
It’s important to note that Inspections are a way to remove defects at a lower cost, not a way to prevent defects from occurring.

A) True
B) False

4)
Code inspector teams consist of ....... individuals.

A) 9-11
B) 8-10
C) 5-8
D) 2-5

5)
Usually a single code inspector should cover no more than ................., including comments, but not including whitespace.

A) 350 source code lines
B) 250 source code lines
C) 150 source code lines
D) 450 source code lines

6)
Additional inputs are: Inspection reporting forms, Inspection checklists, Hardware product specifications, Hardware performance data. Some of these inputs are optional. The reporting form is mandatory as well as the inspection checklist.

A) True
B) False

7)
To do the inspection, go through the code line by line, attempting to fully understand what you are reading. At each line or block of code, skim through the ............, looking for questions which apply. For each applicable question, find whether the answer is "yes." A yes answer means a probable defect.

A) inspection questionnaire
B) inspection security list
C) inspection checklist
D) inspection document

8)
The formalism in the inspection process is heavy. However, the formalism does not guarantee that bugs are detected!

A) True
B) False

9)
A .......... runs the inspection process. He finds a conference room, distributes listings to the participants, and runs the meeting. That person is one of us, not a manager, and smart teams insure everyone takes turns being ......... so one person isn't viewed as the perennial bad guy.

A) Team Lead
B) manager
C) inspector
D) moderator

10)
At the end of the inspection the decision has to be made to accept the work product, close the inspection, but require a rework, reject the work product and require a re-inspection after the rework is done.

A) True
B) False

Answers

1)a, 2)a, 3) a, 4) d, 5)b, 6) a, 7)c, 8) a, 9)d, 10) a

Usability Testing - Multiple Choice Questions

2010-12-29T21:44:00.000-08:00

Usability Testing - Multiple Choice Questions

1)
Usability testing is a technique for ensuring that the intended users of a system can carry out the intended tasks efficiently, effectively and satisfactorily.

A) True
B) False

2)
Goals of usability testing:

A) Performance
B) Accuracy
C) Recall -- How much does the person remember afterwards or after periods of non-use?
D) All of above

3)
If you develop web sites, you need to be doing usability testing.

A) True
B) False

4)
Usability testing can be carried out at various stages of the design process. In the early stages, however, techniques such as ............ are often more appropriate.

A) sample tests
B) SRSs
C) walkthroughs
D) Both A & B

5)
Usability testing does not have a well defined test plan.

A) True
B) False

6)
Think about why you will be doing a usability test:

A) How do people interact with the system you are testing?
B) What is difficult or easy for people to do?
C) What makes sense about it? What is exciting about it?
D) What changes would users like to see?
E) All of above

7)
Theses methods can help improve the usability and usefulness of your site:

A) Card Sorting
B) Favorite Interviews
C) Focus Groups
D) Heuristic Evaluation

8)
A user interface is well-designed when the program behaves exactly how the user thought it would.

A) True
B) False

9)
Checklists may or may not always help improve your usability testing.

A) True
B) False

10)
Google Website Optimizer can be used for usability testing.

A) True
B) False

Answers

1)a, 2)d, 3) a, 4) c, 5)b, 6) e, 7)a,c d, 8) a, 9)b, 10) a

Code Coverage - Multiple Choice Questions

2010-12-29T21:43:00.001-08:00

Code Coverage - Multiple Choice Questions

1)
Code coverage analysis is the process of:

A) Finding areas of a program not exercised by a set of test cases,
B) Creating additional test cases to increase coverage, and
C) Determining a quantitative measure of code coverage, which is an indirect measure of quality.
D) Both A & B
E) All of above

2)
An optional aspect of code coverage analysis is: Identifying redundant test cases that do not increase coverage.

A) True
B) False

3)
Major benefit of ............... is that it is greatly able to isolate the portion of code, which could not be executed.

A) parameter coverage
B) condition coverage
C) statement coverage
D) loop coverage

4)
Statement coverage does not report whether loops reach their termination condition - only whether the loop body was executed.

A) True
B) False

5)
Statement coverage is also called line coverage.

A) True
B) False

6)
With 100 percent branch coverage, every branch of every statement may or may not be executed.

A) True
B) False

7)
Decision Coverage & Condition Coverage is one and same thing.

A) True
B) False

8)
Multiple condition coverage reports whether every possible combination of conditions occurs. The test cases required for full multiple condition coverage of a decision are given by the logical operator ....... for the decision.

A) section table
B) data table
C) truth table
D) variable table

9)
Path coverage drawbacks:

A) Number of possible paths that need to be supported by test procedures my be exceedingly exhaustive and beyond the scope of most test programs.
B) Path coverage is very time consuming and should be used for critical success functions only.
C) Path coverage in infinitely difficult.
D) Path coverage may have loopings.

10)
Function Coverage:

A) This metric reports whether you invoked each function or procedure.
B) This metric reports whether you executed each loop body zero times, exactly once, and more than once (consecutively).
C) Both A & B
D) There is no such thing as Function Coverage

Answers

1)e, 2)a, 3) c, 4) a, 5)a, 6) b, 7)b, 8) c, 9)a,b 10) a

Quality Center Questions 21 - Test Execution

2009-04-02T03:47:00.000-07:00

1)
A ...... is a group of tests in a Quality Center project designed to achieve specific testing goals.

A) test set
B) test set tree
C) test set graph
D) test set hierarchy

2)
When you run an automated test, the selected testing tool opens automatically, runs the test, and exports the test results to Quality Center.

A) True
B) False

3)
You can validate test results regularly ..........

A) by viewing run data
B) by generating reports and graphs.
C) by generating reports
D) Both A & B
E) Both B & C

4)
You create test sets and perform test runs in the ....... module of Quality Center

A) Test Labs
B) Test Analytics
C) Test Lab
D) Test Plan

5)
You can access the Test Lab menu bar from the Test Lab module by pressing the shortcut key ....

A) F9
B) F8
C) F7
D) F6

6)
The Test Lab module includes the following toolbars:

A) Test Set
B) Select Tests
C) Test Sets
D) Both A & B
E) Both B & C

7)
In the Execution Grid, your test data is organized and displayed in a grid.

A) True
B) False

8)
You can use the ...... to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Execution Grid.

A) Scripting Editor
B) Script Editor
C) Scripts Editor
D) Script Editors

9)
In the Execution Flow, your test data is organized and displayed in a

A) Chart
B) Graph
C) Diagram
D) Hierarchy

10)
You can organize test execution by creating test sets.

A) True
B) False

11)
After you design tests in the Test Plan module, you create a ......

A) test sets graphs
B) test sets charts
C) test sets grids
D) test sets tree

12)
After you have created a test sets tree, you assign test set folders to cycles
defined in the releases tree in the ......

A) Test Plan module
B) Releases module
C) Maintenance module
D) Release module

13)
You can also add tests (to test sets) by double-clicking or dragging a folder or test in the test plan tree to the Execution Grid or Execution Flow.

A) True
B) False

14)
You can set on ........ for a test set which instruct Quality Center in the event that an automated test in the test set fails?

A) fail rules
B) fail-test rules
C) failure rules
D) failtest rules

15)
You can use the .... wizard to delete old test run results in your project.

A) Purge Runs
B) Delete Runs
C) Prune Runs
D) Both A & B

16)
In the Execution Flow, you can specify a date and time, and set conditions for executing a test. A ...... is based on the results of another specified test in the Execution Flow.

A) condition
B) date and time
C) time
D) date

17)
You cannot change the way the Execution Flow is displayed.

A) True
B) False

18)
You can execute tests more than once in the same set. Each execution is considered a new test run.

A) True
B) False

19)
While executing a test in the Manual Runner: Step Details dialog box, you can ...... test steps.

A) add
B) delete
C) modify
D) All of above

20)
If a manual test run was paused during execution, you cannot continue the run at a later stage.

A) True
B) False

21)
You cannot run tests automatically on remote hosts.

A) True
B) False

22)
You can only view the Execution Log if you selected Enable Log in the Automatic Runner dialog box before you executed the test.

A) True
B) False

23)
If you specify a host group for remote test execution, ...... runs the test on the first available host, not every host in the host group.

A) Quality Center
B) QTP
C) LoadRunner
D) Site Test

24)
Test results consist of...........

A) the overall pass/fail status of a test instance
B) pass/fail status of each step in a test instance.
C) pass/fail status of each step in a test Case.
D) Both A & B

25)
Quality Center enables you to compare the results of a test run with the results of previous runs.

A) True
B) False

26)
You can set parameter values and other configuration options for an automated test instance from the........ view

A) Configure
B) Planning
C) Configuration
D) Settings

27)
You can view and edit the ..... rules for an automated test instance using the Run Events view. These rules instruct Quality Center in the event that the test instance fails.

A) On Fail
B) On Failure
C) On Failing
D) On Falling

28)
You can view and manage defect links made to other Quality Center entities.

A) True
B) False

29)
You can view a list of changes made to the test instance in the ... .

A) History view
B) Log view
C) Both A & B
D) None

30)
Test sets can include both manual and automated tests.

A) True
B) False

31)
By default, the uppermost level in a test sets tree is the .... folder.

A) Top
B) Upmost
C) Root
B) Top-Level

32)
You can assign multiple values to a parameter during a test run.

A) True
B) False

Answers

1) A , 2) A , 3) D, 4) C , 5) A , 6) D , 7) A , 8) B , 9) C , 10) A, 11) D , 12) B, 13) A, 14) C, 15) A, 16) A, 17 B, 18) A, 19) D, 20) B,21) B,22) A,23) A,24) D ,25) A ,26) C,27) B,28) A,29) A, 30) A, 31) C, 32) B

Quality Center Questions 20 - Defect tracking

2009-04-02T03:45:00.000-07:00

1)
Defects can be detected and added to your Quality Center project by users during...... of the testing process

A) the final stage
B) all stages
C) all stages but after first stage
D) Both B & C

2)
While reviewing new defects, if duplicate defects appear in the project, change their status to either .........., or delete them from the project.

A) Closed
B) Rejected
C) Duplicate
D) both A & B

3)
....... enable you to analyze the progress of defect repairs, and view how long defects have been residing in a project.

A) Reports
B) Graphs
C) analysers
D) Both A & B

4)
You track defects in the Quality Center Defects module, which you open by clicking the Defects button on the sidebar.

A) True
B) False

5)
To find a specific defect by Defect ID in the Defects Grid, choose ........

A) Defects > Find Defect.
B) Defects > Search Defect.
C) Defects > Go To Defect.
D) None of above

6)
You cannot add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields
in the Defects Grid.

A) True
B) False

7)
You can use the .......... to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Defects Grid.

A) Script Editor
B) Defect Editor
C) Scripts Editor
D) Defects Editor

8)
You can link defects to other Quality Center entities, such as requirements, tests and other defects.

A) True
B) False

9)
In addition to adding defects directly in Quality Center, you can also import defect data from .......... to your Quality Center project.

A) Microsoft Word
B) Microsoft Excel
C) Lotus
D) txt file

10)
There are two methods you can use to conduct a search for similar defects:

A) Find Similar Defects
B) Find Similar Defect
C) Find Similar Texts.
D) Find Similar Text.

11)
Tracking the repair of defects in a project requires that you periodically update defects. You can do so directly in the ............

A) Defects Grid
B) Defect Details dialog box.
C) Find Defects dialog box
D) Both A & B

12)
You can send e-mail about a defect to another user. This enables you to inform development and quality assurance personnel about defect repair activity.

A) True
B) False

13)
You can link a defect to the test sets.

A) True
B) False

14)
A defect can be linked directly or indirectly to an entity

A) True
B) False

15)
You can remove defect links from the ........

A) Linked Defects grid
B) Link Defects grid
C) Linked Defect grid
D) Both B & C

Answers

1) B , 2) D , 3) D, 4) A , 5) C , 6) B , 7) A , 8) A , 9) B , 10) A,D, 11) D , 12) A, 13) B, 14) A, 15) A

Quality Center Questions 19 - Test Planning

2009-04-02T03:38:00.000-07:00

1)
The ........ is a graphical representation of your test plan.

A) test plan view
B) test plan tree
C) test plan graph
D) test plan hierarchy

2)
By defining ......... for a test, you can keep track of the relationship between the tests in your test plan and your original testing requirements.

A) Test Plan
B) requirements tree
C) requirements Graph
D) requirements coverage

3)
Factors influencing test automation include ..........

A) frequency of execution
B) volume of data input
C) length of execution time
D) complexity
E) All of above

4)
You design tests in Quality Center in the ....... module, which you open by clicking the Test Plan button on the sidebar

A) Plan Test
B) Quality Plan
C) Testing Plan
D) Test Plan

5)
You can access the Test Plan menu bar from the Test Plan module by pressing the shortcut key....

A) F9
B) F8
C) F7
D) F6

6)
The ..... displays all the tests in a Quality Center project.

A) Test Plan module
B) Test Grid
C) Test graph
D) Test hierarchy

7)
You can view and modify test information in the Test Grid.

A) True
B) False

8)
To find a specific test by Test ID in the Test Grid, choose ......, and enter the test ID.

A) Test > Get Test
B) Test > Search Test
C) Test > Find Test
D) Test > Go to Test

9)
You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Test Grid.

A) True
B) False

10)
You cannot use the Script Editor to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Test Grid.

A) True
B) False

11)
The typical application is too large to test as a whole. The Test Plan module
enables you to divide your application according to ............

A) Priority
B) functionality
C) modules
D) Both A & B

12)
You can update the test plan tree at any time.

A) True
B) False

13)
Developing and editing a test plan tree does not require appropriate user permissions.

A) True
B) False

14)
In addition to creating a test plan tree directly in Quality Center, you can also import test plan data from ..... to your Quality Center project.

A) Microsoft Word
B) Microsoft Excel
C) Notepad
D) Both A & B

15)
Once you have created a test plan tree containing the main test subjects, you are ready to create...

A) Tests
B) Modules
C) Sub Modules
D) Sub Plans

16)
You can automatically create tests based directly on your requirements in the Requirements module

A) True
B) False

17)
After test creation, you can change the test type from the .....

A) Test Module
B) Test Plan
C) Test Menu
D) Test Grid

18)
To set a QuickTest Professional test as a template test, right-click the test in the test plan tree, and choose ...

A) Template Module
B) Template Test
C) Test Template
D) Temp Test

19)
Use the ......... to review the overall structure of your test plan and to
view the tests assigned to each subject.

A) test plan Module
B) test plan Graph
C) test plan Hierarchy
D) test plan tree

20)
A question mark icon in the test plan tree indicates that the QuickTest Professional add-in is not installed on your machine.

A) True
B) False

21)
You cannot send e-mail about a test to other users in your project.

A) True
B) False

22)
By default, Quality Center sends e-mail in HTML format. To send e-mail as plain text instead, edit the ..... parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.

A) MAILS_FORMAT
B) MAIL_FORMATS
C) MAIL_FORMAT
D) MAILFORMAT

23)
You can search for a particular test in the test plan tree or in the Test Grid
using the ..... command.

A) Found
B) Find
C) Search
D) Go to

24)
You cannot copy tests and subject folders from one project to another

A) True
B) False

25)
You can copy a test and paste its URL as a link.

A) True
B) False

26)
You can sort the folders in the test plan tree and create a custom sort according to your needs.

A) True
B) False

27)
You cannot rename or delete subject folders and tests in the test plan tree.

A) True
B) False

28)
If you delete a test, the test and test script are deleted permanently.

A) True
B) False

29)
You can link requirements and ..... to defects.

A) test cases
B) test instances
C) test modules
D) tests

30)
Requirements coverage is created automatically when you convert a requirement to a test.

A) True
B) False

31)
You can also define requirements coverage by dragging a requirement in the requirements tree to the ..... grid.

A) requirements grid
B) requirement grid
C) coverages grid
D) coverage grid

32)
You can link tests to requirements using the ....... module.

A) Requirements module
B) Test module
C) Planning module
D) Analysis module

33)
Test coverage is created automatically when you generate a test from a requirement.

A) True
B) False

34)
By default, coverage is available only for the following requirement types:

A) Functional
B) Testing
C) Undefined
D) All of above

35)
You can create design steps for both manual and automated tests.

A) True
B) False

36)
To increase the flexibility and power of a test, you can add ..... to the called test and to the tests that call it.

A) parameters
B) Arguments
C) Functions
D) procedures

37)
After you have created steps for a manual test, you can generate a test script
..... in which you can write scripts to run the test as an automated test.

A) steps
B) Template
C) skeleton
D) Profile

38)
You can run a system test to retrieve a machine’s system information, view a
captured desktop image of a test run on a machine, or restart a machine.

A) True
B) False

39)
You can view the results of your system test in the .... module.

A) Test Lab
B) Test Plan
C) Test Requirement
D) Test Analysis

40)
System tests can be run on your own machine, or on multiple remote host machines connected to your network.

A) True
B) False

Answers

1) B , 2) D , 3) E, 4) D , 5) A , 6) B , 7) A , 8) D , 9) A , 10) B, 11) B , 12) A, 13) B, 14) D, 15) A, 16) A, 17 D, 18) B, 19) D, 20) A,21) B,22) C,23) B,24) B ,25) A ,26) A,27) B,28) A,29) D, 30) A, 31) D, 32) A, 33)A , 34)D ,35)A , 36) A , 37)C, 38) A, 39) A, 40) A

2009-03-22T00:20:00.000-07:00

PHP Multiple Choice Questions

2009-03-21T22:19:00.000-07:00

1) What PHP stands for?

A) Hypertext Preprocessor
B) Pre Hypertext Processor
C) Pre Hyper Processor
D) Pre Hypertext Process

PHP Questions Set 1 - PHP Basics
PHP Questions Set 2 - PHP Strings & Regular Expressions
PHP Questions Set 3 - PHP Arrays
PHP Questions Set 4 - PHP Files
PHP Questions Set 5 - PHP Date - Time
PHP Questions Set 6 - PHP Database
PHP Questions Set 7 - PHP Stream / Network

PHP Stream / Network Multiple Choice Questions

2009-03-17T19:02:00.000-07:00

1)
What function can you use to create your own streams using the PHP stream wrappers and register them within PHP?

A) wrapper_register
B) stream_wrapper
C) stream_wrapper_register
D) stream_wrapper_reg

2)
The windows version of PHP has built-in support for the FTP extension

A) True
B) False

3)
The ftp_mkdir() function creates a directory on the FTP server.

A) ftp_mkdir()
B) ftp_makekdir()
C) ftp_mkdirectory()
D) Both A & B

4)
Which of the following operations cannot be performed using the standard ftp:// stream wrapper?

A) Reading a file
B) Writing a file
C) Establishing a stateful connection and changing directories interactively
D) Creating a new directory

5)
What will the following script do?

<?php
echo getservbyname ('ftp', 'tcp');
?>

A) A list of the FTP servers on the local network
B) The address of the FTP server called “tcp”
C) The port associated with the TCP service called “FTP”
D) A list of the ports associated with all services except FTP

6)
The ftp_size() function returns the size of a specified file on the FTP server.

A) get_ftp_size()
B) ftp_file_size()
C) ftp_size()
D) ftp_amount()

7)
When dealing with timeout values in sockets, the connection timeout can be changed independently of the read/write time out. Which function must be used for this purpose?

A) stream_get_timeout
B) stream_set_timeout
C) stream_fset_timeout
D) stream_fget_timeout

8)
Which of the following network transports doesn’t PHP support?

A) tcp
B) udp
C) udg
D) pdc
E) unix

9)
The FTP functions are used to ....... files from file servers.

A) Open
B) Login
C) Close
D) Upload
E) Download
F) All of above

10)
Which of the following are valid PHP stream transports?

A) http
B) STDIO
C) ftp
D) STDOUT
E) stream

Answers

1) C, 2) A, 3) A, 4) C,D, 5) C, 6) C, 7) B, 8) D, 9) F, 10) B, E

PHP Database Multiple Choice Questions

2009-03-17T19:00:00.000-07:00

1)
Which of the following DBMSs do not have a native PHP extension?

A) MySQL
B) IBM DB/2
C) PostgreSQL
D) Microsoft SQL Server
E) None of the above

2)
In PHP in order to access MySQL database you will use:

A) mysqlconnect() function
B) mysql-connect() function
C) mysql_connect() function
D) sql_connect() function

3)
Transactions are used to treat sets of SQL statements atomically.

A) True
B) False

4)
SQL is not case sensitive. SELECT is the same as select.

A) True
B) False

5)
Which of the following is not an SQL aggregate function?

A) AVG
B) SUM
C) MIN
D) MAX
E) CURRENT_DATE()

6)
What does the DESC keyword do in the following query?

SELECT *
FROM MY_TABLE
WHERE ID > 0
ORDER BY ID, NAME DESC

A) It causes the dataset returned by the query to be sorted in descending order
B) It causes rows with the same ID to be sorted by NAME in ascending order
C) It causes rows with the same ID to be sorted by NAME in descending order
D) It causes rows to be sorted by NAME first and then by ID
E) It causes the result set to include a description of the NAME field

7)
The ............. statement is used to delete a table.

A) DROP TABLE
B) DELETE TABLE
C) DEL TABLE
D) REMOVE TABLE

8)
What will happen at the end of the following sequence of SQL commands?

BEGIN TRANSACTION
DELETE FROM MYTABLE WHERE ID=1
DELETE FROM OTHERTABLE
ROLLBACK TRANSACTION

A) The contents of OTHERTABLE will be deleted
B) The contents of both OTHERTABLE and MYTABLE will be deleted
C) The contents of OTHERTABLE will be deleted, as will be all the contents of MYTABLE whose ID is 1
D) The database will remain unchanged to all users except the one that executes these queries.
E) The database will remain unchanged

9)
Use the .............. to delete the data inside the table, and not the table itself?

A) DROP TABLE
B) DELETE TABLE
C) TRUNCATE TABLE
D) REMOVE TABLE

10)
Can joins be nested?

A) True
B) False

Answers

1) E, 2) C, 3) A, 4) A, 5) E, 6) C, 7) A, 8) E, 9) C, 10) A

PHP Date-Time Multiple Choice Questions

2009-03-17T18:59:00.000-07:00

1)
Which of the following functions do not return a timestamp?

A) time()
B) date()
C) strtotime()
D) localtime()
E) gmmktime()

2)
The getdate() function returns

A) An integer
B) A floating-point number
C) An array
D) A string
E) A Boolean

3)
.......... Returns the time of sunrise for a given day / location

A) datesunrise()
B) date_sunrise()
C) date-sunrise()
D) date.sunrise()

4)
What will the following script output?

<?php
$time = strtotime ('2004/01/01');
echo date ('H:\i:s', $time);
?>

A) 00:00:00
B) 12:00:00
C) 00:i:00
D) 12:i:00
E) -1

5)
................Checks a date for numeric validity.

A) check_date
B) verifydate
C) Verify_date
D) checkdate

6)
What is the difference, in seconds, between the current timestamp in the GMT time zone and the current timestamp in your local time zone?

A) It depends on the number of hours between the local time zone and GMT
B) There is no difference
C) The two will only match if the local time zone is GMT
D) The two will never match
E) None of the above

7)
You must make a call to ................... to specify what time zone you want calculations to take place in before calling any date functions.

A) date_default_timezone_set()
B) datedefault_timezone_set()
C) date_defaulttimezone_set()
D) date_default_timezoneset()

8)
What would happen if the following script were run on a Windows server set to Moscow, Russia’s time zone?

<?php
echo gmmktime(0, 0, 0, 1, 1, 1970);
?>

A) It would output the number 0
B) It would output the number -1
C) It would output the number 1
D) It would raise an error
E) It would output nothing

9)
The ......... function parses an English textual date or time into a Unix timestamp

A) strtodate()
B) stroftime()
C) strtotime()
D) str_to_time()

10)
................ Formats a local time or date according to locale settings.

A) strftime
B) strgtime
C) strhtime
D) stritime

Answers

1) B, D 2) C, 3) B, 4) C, 5) D, 6) B, 7) A, 8) B, 9) C, 10) A

PHP Files Multiple Choice Questions

2009-03-17T18:57:00.000-07:00

1)
Which of the following functions retrieve the entire contents of a file in such a way that it can be used as part of an expression? (Choose 2)

A) file_get_contents()
B) fgets()
C) fopen()
D) file()
E) readfile()

2)
fgets() is used to read a file one line at a time

A) True
B) False

3)
What is the difference between stat() and fstat()?

A) While stat() works on open file pointers, fstat() works on files specified by
pathname
B) While fstat() works on open file pointers, stat() works on files specified by
pathname
C) fstat() has nothing to do with files
D) stat() has nothing to do with files
E) fstat() is an alias of stat()

4)
flock() is used to unlock a file so that two or more people do not get access to it at the same time.

A) True
B) False

5)
Which of the following functions reads the entire contents of a file?

A) fgets()
B) file_get_contents()
C) fread()
D) readfile()
E) file()

6)
What is the purpose of basename() function?

A) Returns the last accessed time of the file
B) Returns the first accessed time of the file
C) Strips of the path and returns the file name.
D) Strips of the path and returns the folder name.

7)
Assuming that image.jpg exists and is readable by PHP, how will the following script be displayed if called directly from a browser?

<?php
header ("Content-type: image/jpeg");
?>
<?php
readfile ("image.jpg");
?>

A) As a JPEG image
B) As a binary file for display within the browser
C) As a binary file for download
D) As a JPEG file for download
E) As a broken image

8)
What should you do if your script is having problem recognizing file endings from a text file saved on a platform different from the one you’re reading it on?

A) Change the auto_detect_line_endings INI setting
B) Use a regular expression to detect the last letter of a line
C) Use fpos()
D) Use ftok()
E) Read the file one character at a time

9)
The ............ function checks if the "end-of-file" (EOF) has been reached.

A) f_eof()
B) f_of()
C) feofs()
D) feof()

10)
The ........... function is used to read a single character from a file.

A) fgetc()
B) fgets()
C) fget()
D) fgetf()

Answers

1) A, D 2) A, 3) B, 4) B, 5) B, D, E 6) C, 7) E, 8) A, 9) D, 10) A

PHP Arrays Multiple Choice Questions

2009-03-17T18:56:00.000-07:00

1)
Array values are keyed by ______ values (called indexed arrays) or using ______ values (called associative arrays). Of course, these key methods can be combined as well.

A) Float, string
B) Positive number, negative number
C) Even number, string
D) String, Boolean
E) Integer, string

2)
What will the following script output?

<?php
$array = array (1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34, 55);
$sum = 0;
for ($i = 0; $i < 5; $i++) {
$sum += $array[$array[$i]];
}
echo $sum;
?>

A) 78
B) 19
C) NULL
D) 5
E) 0

3)
What elements will the following script output?

<?php
$array = array (true => 'a', 1 => 'b');
var_dump ($array);
?>

A) 1 => 'b'
B) True => 'a', 1 => 'b'
C) 0 => 'a', 1 => 'b'
D) None
E) It will output NULL

4)
Which array function checks if the specified key exists in the array

A) array_key_exist()
B) array_key_exists()
C) array_keys_exists()
D) arrays_key_exists()

5)
There are three different kind of arrays:

A) Numeric array, String array, Multidimensional array
B) Numeric array, Associative array, Dimensional array
C) Numeric array, Associative array, Multidimensional array
D) Const array, Associative array, Multidimensional array

6)
Absent any actual need for choosing one method over the other, does passing arrays by value to a read-only function reduce performance compared to passing them by reference?

A) Yes, because the interpreter must always create a copy of the array before passing it to the function.
B) Yes, but only if the function modifies the contents of the array.
C) Yes, but only if the array is large.
D) Yes, because PHP must monitor the execution of the function to determine if
changes are made to the array.
E) No.

7)
Assume you would like to sort an array in ascending order by value while preserving key associations. Which of the following PHP sorting functions would you use?

A) ksort()
B) asort()
C) krsort()
D) sort()
E) usort()

8)
What function computes the difference of arrays?

A) array_diff
B) diff_array
C) arrays_diff
D) diff_arrays

9)
What functions count elements in an array?

A) count
B) Sizeof
C) Array_Count
D) Count_array

10)
What array will you get if you convert an object to an array?

A) An array with properties of that object as the array's elements.
B) An array with properties of that array as the object's elements.
C) An array with properties of that object as the Key elements.
D) An array with keys of that object as the array's elements.

Answers

1) E, 2) A, 3) E, 4) B, 5) C, 6) E, 7) B, 8) A, 9) A, B, 10) A

PHP Strings & Reg Exp Multiple Choice Questions

2009-03-17T18:55:00.000-07:00

1)
Which of the following will not combine strings $s1 and $s2 into a single string?

A) $s1 + $s2
B) "{$s1}{$s2}"
C) $s1.$s2
D) implode(' ', array($s1,$s2))
E) All of the above combine the strings

2)
Given a variable $email containing the string user@example.com, which of the following statements would extract the string example.com?

A) substr($email, strpos($email, "@"));
B) strstr($email, "@");
C) strchr($email, "@");
D) substr($email, strpos($email, "@")+1);
E) strrpos($email, "@");

3)
Given a comma-separated list of values in a string, which function from the given list can create an array of each individual value with a single call?

A) strstr()
B) Cannot be done with a single function
C) extract()
D) explode()
E) strtok()

4)
What is the best all-purpose way of comparing two strings?

A) Using the strpos function
B) Using the == operator
C) Using strcasecmp()
D) Using strcmp()

5)
Which of the following PCRE regular expressions best matches the string php|architect?

A) .*
B) ...|.........
C) \d{3}\|\d{8}
D) [az]{3}\|[az]{9}
E) [a-z][a-z][a-z]\|\w{9}

6)
Which of the following functions can be used to determine the integrity of a string?

A) md5()
B) sha1()
C) str_rot13()
D) crypt()
E) crc32()

7)
What happens if you add a string to an integer using the + operator?

A) The interpreter outputs a type mismatch error
B) The string is converted to a number and added to the integer
C) The string is discarded and the integer is preserved
D) The integer and string are concatenated together in a new string
E) The integer is discarded and the string is preserved

8)
The ___________ function can be used to compare two strings using a case-insensitive binary algorithm

A) strcmp()
B) stricmp()
C) strcasecmp()
D) stristr()
E) None of the above

9)
Which of the following functions can be used to convert the binary data stored in a string into its hexadecimal representation?

A) encode_hex()
B) pack()
C) hex2bin()
D) bin2hex()
E) printf()

10)
^[A-Za-z].* matches

A) play it again
B) I
C) 123
D) ?

11)
^[0-9]{5}(\-[0-9]{4})?$ matches

A) 90001 and 90002-4323
B) 9001 and 12-4321

Answers

1) A, 2) D, 3) D, 4) D, 5) E, 6) A,B,E, 7) B, 8) C, 9) B,D, 10) A, B, 11) A

PHP Basics Multiple Choice Questions

2009-03-17T18:52:00.000-07:00

1)
What PHP stands for?

A) Hypertext Preprocessor
B) Pre Hypertext Processor
C) Pre Hyper Processor
D) Pre Hypertext Process

2)
Which of the following tags is not a valid way to begin and end a PHP code block?

3)
How does the identity operator === compare two values?

A) It converts them to a common compatible data type and then compares the resulting values
B) It returns True only if they are both of the same type and value
C) If the two values are strings, it performs a lexical comparison
D) It bases its comparison on the C strcmp function exclusively
E) It converts both values to strings and compares them

4)
Under what circumstance is it impossible to assign a default value to a parameter while declaring a function?

A) When the parameter is Boolean
B) When the function is being declared as a member of a class
C) When the parameter is being declared as passed by reference
D) When the function contains only one parameter
E) Never

5)
Variables always start with a ........ in PHP

A) Pond-sign
B) Yen-sign
C) Dollar-sign
E) Euro-sign

6)
What is the value displayed when the following is executed? Assume that the code was executed using the following URL:

testscript.php?c=25

<?php
function process($c, $d = 25)
{
global $e;
$retval = $c + $d - $_GET['c'] - $e;
return $retval;
}
$e = 10;
echo process(5);
?>

A) 25
B) -5
C) 10
D) 5
E) 0

7)
PHP is an open source software

A) True
B) False

8)
Which of the following is not valid PHP code?

A) $_10
B) ${“MyVar”}
C) &$something
D) $10_somethings
E) $aVaR

9)
What is the difference between print() and echo()?

A) print() can be used as part of an expression, while echo() can’t
B) echo() can be used as part of an expression, while print() can’t
C) echo() can be used in the CLI version of PHP, while print() can’t
D) print() can be used in the CLI version of PHP, while echo() can’t
E) There’s no difference: both functions print out some text!

10)
PHP runs on different platforms (Windows, Linux, Unix, etc.)

A) True
B) False

Answers

1) D, 2) B, 3) A, 4) C, 5) C, 6) B, 7) A, 8) D, 9) A, B, 10) A

LoadRunner Multiple Choice Questions

2009-03-17T09:03:00.002-07:00

1) The LoadRunner component......... create the load by running virtual users..

A) Load Creator
B) Load Generators
C) Load Vuser
D) Both A & B

LoadRunner Questions Set 1
LoadRunner Questions Set 2
LoadRunner Questions Set 3
LoadRunner Questions Set 4
LoadRunner Questions Set 5
LoadRunner Questions Set 6
LoadRunner Questions Set 7
LoadRunner Questions Set 8
LoadRunner Questions Set 9
LoadRunner Questions Set 10

Quality Center Multiple Choice Questions

2009-03-17T09:03:00.001-07:00

1) Test management with Quality Center involves …. Phases.

A) Four
B) Five
C) Six
D) Seven

QTP Multiple Choice Questions

2009-03-17T09:03:00.000-07:00

1) 'Browser navigation timeout' is in which tab of Test Settings (File-->Settings) window.

A) Properties
B) Resources
C) Web
D) Web Settings

QTP Questions 34 - Reporter Object

2009-02-23T07:27:00.000-08:00

1)
The object used for sending information to the test results is....

A) ReporterEvent
B) Reporter
C) both A & B
D) None of above

2)
Reporter object is an utility object

A) True
B) False

3)
ReportEvent Method .......

A) Reports an event to the Quality Center
B) Reports an event to the Excel Sheet
C) Reports an event to the test results.
D) Reports an event to the Business Process Testing.

4)
ReportEvent method's EventStatus argument has the following predefined constants: (click all answers that apply)

A) 0 or micPass
B) 1 or micFail
C) 2 or micDone
D) 3 or micWarning
E) 4 or micError

5)
.........Retrieves the run status at the current point of the run session.

A) RunStatuses
B) RunStatus
C) Run_Status
D) Run-Status

6)
The following example uses the RunStatus property to retrieve the status of the run session at a specific point and exit the action if the test status is .......
If Reporter.RunStatus = 1 Then ExitAction

A) Pass
B) Fail
C) Error
D) Warning

7)
.................Retrieves or sets the current mode for displaying events in the Test Results

A) Filters
B) RFilter
C) R.Filter
D) Filter

8)
You can use ...... property to completely disable or enable reporting of steps

A) enable
B) disable
C) filter
D) enable-disable

9)
How would you insert result for a step in Test Results

A) Reporter.Reports micPass, "step", "details"
B) Reporter.ReportEvent micPass, "step", "details"
C) Reporter.PassEvent , "step", "details"
D) Reporter.Event.Report micPass, "step", "details"

10)
.....................Retrieves the folder path in which the current test's results are stored

A) Reporter.Report.Path
B) Reporter.ReportsPath
C) Reporter.ReportPath
D) Reporter.Report_Path

Answers

1) B, 2) A, 3) C, 4) A,B,C,D 5) B, 6) B, 7) D, 8) C, 9) B, 10) C

SQL Join Multiple Choice Questions

2009-02-20T10:38:00.000-08:00

1)
You want to retrieve all employees, whether or not they have matching departments in the departments table. Which query would you use?

A) SELECT last_name, department_name
FROM employees e LEFT OUTER
JOIN departments d ON (e.department_id = d.department_id);

B) SELECT last_name, department_name
FROM employees e RIGHT OUTER
JOIN departments d ON (e.department_id = d.department_id);

C) SELECT last_name, department_name
FROM employees e FULL OUTER
JOIN departments d ON (e.department_id = d.department_id);

2)
Which two statements about views are true? (Choose two.)

A) A view can be created as read only.
B) A view can be created as a join on two or more tables.
C) A view cannot have an ORDER BY clause in the SELECT statement.
D) A view cannot be created with a GROUP BY clause in the SELECT statement.
E) A view must have aliases defined for the column names in the SELECT statement

3)
Evaluate this SQL statement:

SELECT employee_id, e.department_id, department_name, salary
FROM employees e, departments d
WHERE e.department_id = d.department_id;

Which SQL statement is equivalent to the above SQL statement?

A) SELECT employee_id, department_id, department_name, salary
FROM employees
WHERE department_id IN (SELECT department_id
FROM departments);

B) SELECT employee_id, department_id, department_name, salary
FROM employees
NATURAL JOIN departments;

C) SELECT employee_id, d.department_id, department_name, salary
FROM employees e
JOIN departments d
ON e.department_id = d.department_id;

D) SELECT employee_id, department_id, department_name, salary
FROM employees
JOIN departments
USING (e.department_id, d.department_id);

4)
In which case would you use a FULL OUTER JOIN?

A) Both tables have NULL values.
B) You want all unmatched data from one table.
C) You want all matched data from both tables.
D) You want all unmatched data from both tables.
E) One of the tables has more data than the other.
F) You want all matched and unmatched data from only one table.

5)
Evaluate this SQL statement:

SELECT e.EMPLOYEE_ID,e.LAST_NAME,e.DEPARTMENT_ID, d.DEPARTMENT_NAME
FROM EMP e, DEPARTMENT d WHERE e.DEPARTMENT_ID = d.DEPARTMENT_ID;

In the statement, which capabilities of a SELECT statement are performed?

A) Selection, projection, join
B) Difference, projection, join
C) Selection, intersection, join
D) Intersection, projection, join
E) Difference, projection, product

6)
What is true about joining tables through an equijoin?

A) You can join a maximum of two tables through an equijoin.
B) You can join a maximum of two columns through an equijoin.
C) You specify an equijoin condition in the SELECT or FROM clauses of a SELECT statement.
D) To join two tables through an equijoin, the columns in the join condition must be primary key and foreign key columns.
E) You can join n tables (all having single column primary keys) in a SQL statement by specifying a minimum of n-1 join conditions.

7)
Which three are true regarding the use of outer joins? (Choose three.)

A) You cannot use IN operator in a condition that involves an outerjoin.
B) You use (+) on both sides of the WHERE condition to perform an outerjoin.
C) You use (*) on both sides of the WHERE condition to perform an outerjoin.
D) You use an outerjoin to see only the rows that do not meet the join condition.
E) In the WHERE condition, you use (+) following the name of the column in the table without matching rows, to perform an outerjoin.
F) You cannot link a condition that is involved in an outerjoin to another condition by using the OR operator.

8)
In which three cases would you use the USING clause? (Choose three.)

A) You want to create a nonequijoin.
B) The tables to be joined have multiple NULL columns.
C) The tables to be joined have columns of the same name and different data types.
D) The tables to be joined have columns with the same name and compatible data types.
E) You want to use a NATURAL join, but you want to restrict the number of columns in the join condition.

9)
Examine the structure of the EMPLOYEES and DEPARTMENTS tables:

EMPLOYEES

EMPLOYEE_ID NUMBER
DEPARTMENT_ID NUMBER
MANAGER_ID NUMBER
LAST_NAME VARCHAR2(25)

DEPARTMENTS

DEPARTMENT_ID NUMBER
MANAGER_ID NUMBER
DEPARTMENT_NAME VARCHAR2(35)
LOCATION_ID NUMBER

You want to create a report displaying employee last names, department names, and locations. Which query should you use to create an equi-join?

A) SELECT last_name, department_name, location_id FROM employees , departments ;
B) SELECT employees.last_name, departments.department_name, departments.location_id FROM employees e, departments D WHERE e.department_id =d.department_id;
C) SELECT e.last_name, d.department_name, d.location_id FROM employees e, departments D WHERE manager_id =manager_id;
D) SELECT e.last_name, d.department_name, d.location_id FROM employees e, departments D WHERE e.department_id =d.department_id;

10)
In which two cases would you use an outer join? (Choose two.)

A) The tables being joined have NOT NULL columns.
B) The tables being joined have only matched data.
C) The columns being joined have NULL values.
D) The tables being joined have only unmatched data.
E) The tables being joined have both matched and unmatched data.
F) Only when the tables have a primary key/foreign key relationship.

11)
A SELECT statement can be used to perform these three functions:

- Choose rows from a table.
- Choose columns from a table.
- Bring together data that is stored in different tables by creating a link between them.
Which set of keywords describes these capabilities?

A) difference, projection, join
B) selection, projection, join
C) selection, intersection, join
D) intersection, projection, join
E) difference, projection, product

Answers

1) A, 2) A, B, 3) C, 4) D, 5) A, 6) E, 7) D, E, F, 8) C,D,E, 9) D, 10) C, E, 11) B

QTP Questions 33 - Relative & Absolute Path

2009-02-07T09:04:00.000-08:00

1)
In Edit > Action > Action Properties, in Associated Repositories tab, you cannot enter an associated object repository as a relative path.

A) True
B) False

2)
..............method helps you resolve the specified relative file path and returns its absolute path.

A) Local
B) Lrelative
C) Locate
D) Lresolve

3)
In the FIle ->Settings, Resource tab, you can enter an associated function library as a relative path.

A) True
B) False

4)
ExecuteFile Statement which executes the VBScript statements in the specified file can accept ............ of the file to execute.

A) Absolute
B) Relative
C) Both A & B
D) None

5)
When working with tests, if your recovery files are stored in the file system and you want other users or Mercury products to be able to run this test on other computers, you should set the recovery file path as a ......... path.

A) Absolute
B) Relative
C) Both A & B
D) None

6)
When you choose Insert-> Call to Existing Action, in the Select Action dialog that opens, you cannot enter the relative path in "From test" dropdown.

A) True
B) False

7)
If you expect other users to open your tests and all actions in your tests are stored in the same drive, you should use absolute paths for your reusable actions so that other users will be able to open your tests even if they have mapped their network drives differently

A) True
B) False

8)
A relative path is a path that is indicated relatively to a ......... location in the file system tree.

A) previous
B) root
C) current
D) base

9)
You can use a .......statement in your test to retrieve the complete path that QuickTest will use for a specified relative path based on the folders specified in the Folders tab.

A) PathFinder.Locale
B) PathFinder.Locate
C) Locale.PathFinder
D) Locate.PathFinder

10)
.................. Property Assigns a relative path to a shortcut, or identifies the relative path of a shortcut.

A) RelativePath
B) Relative_Path
C) Relative-Path
D) RelativePaths

Answers

1) B, 2) C, 3) A, 4) C, 5) B, 6) B, 7)B, 8) C, 9)B, 10) A

QTP Questions 32 - QTP Test Run Results

2009-01-12T10:43:00.000-08:00

1)
After a run session, you view the results in the Test Results window. By default, the Test Results window opens when a run session is ........
A) completed
B) half completed
C) about to be completed
D) Both A & C

2)
The left pane in the Test Results window displays the .............--a graphical representation of the test results.

A) run results images
B) run results tree
C) run results icons
D) None

3)
By default, when the Test Results window opens, a test summary is displayed in the .......... tab in the right pane of the window.

A) Result Detail
B) Res Details
C) Result Details
D) Details

4)
The right pane of the Test Results Window contains tabs labeled ......................

A) Result Details and Screen Recorder
B) Result Detail and Screen Recorder
C) Res Details and Screen Recorder
D) Details and Screen Recorder

5)
QuickTest Professional can capture still images and movies of your application during a run session.

A) True
B) False

6)
You can view the results of an individual.................

A) iteration
B) an action
C) a step
D) All of above

7)
A test, iteration, or action containing a step marked Warning may still be labeled Passed or Done.

A) True
B) False

8)
You can use ............. statements in the Expert View to disable or enable the saving of selected steps, or to save only steps with Failed or Warning status.

A) Reporter.Event
B) Reporter.Results
C) Reporter.Filter
D) Reporter.Result

9)
You can view the saved results for the current test or component, or you can view the saved results for other test or components.

A) True
B) False

10)
You can use the .............. to remove unwanted or obsolete run results from your system, according to specific criteria that you define.

A) Test Results Tool
B) Test Results Deletion Tool
C) Results Deletion Tool
D) RunResults Deletion Tool

Answers

1) A, 2) B, 3) C, 4) A, 5) A, 6) D, 7) A, 8) C, 9)A, 10) B

QTP Questions 31 - Maintenance Run Mode

2008-12-28T08:19:00.000-08:00

1)
As QuickTest runs in Maintenance Run Mode, it identifies discrepancies between the objects in the repository and those in your .......

A) Function
B) Action1
C) application
D) Both A & B

2)
In Maintenance Run Mode, the run ..... each time an object is not found.

A) Resumes
B) Stops
C) pauses
D) None

3)
When you run a test in Maintenance Mode, the ........ opens for steps that failed because an object was not found in the application.

A) Maintenance Wizard
B) Maintenance Run wizard
C) Maintenance Run option
D) Maintenance Work Wizard

4)
When the Maintenance Run Mode ends, Maintenance Mode wizard provides a summary of the changes it made to your test.

A) True
B) False

5)
You can run in Maintenance Run Mode only when QuickTest is set to use the ..... run mode.

A) Maintenance
B) Low Level
C) Analog
D) Normal

6)
You can run in Maintenance Run Mode on applications that do not have a user interface, such as Web services.

A) True
B) False

7)
You must have the Microsoft Script Debugger installed to run the tests in Maintenance Mode.

A) True
B) False

8)
The Add Comment screen enables you to add a comment to your test or component ..... the current step.

A) After
B) before
C) At Last
D) Both A & C

9)
The Add Object to Repository screen opens if the object to which you pointed .... in any associated object repository.

A) is not added
B) exist
C) does not exist
D) is added

10)
Maintenance Mode makes changes to the .... object repository only.

A) Shared
B) Local
C) Both
D) None

Answers

1) c, 2) c, 3) b, 4) a, 5) d, 6) b, 7) a, 8) b, 9) c, 10) b

QTP Questions 30 - Sharing Information Between Actions

2008-12-08T07:34:00.000-08:00

1)
A Dictionary object is the equivalent of a PERL associative array.

A) True
B) False

2)
Values from one part of a run session cannot be used later in the run session

A) True
B) False

3)
For other actions to use the value in the Data Table as an input parameter, you can store a value in the Data Table by outputting the value to the ..... Data Table

A) local
B) global
C) action
D) both A & B

4)
The Dictionary object enables you to assign values to variables that are accessible from .... actions

A) local
B) external
C) both A & B
D) None of above

5)
After you have added the reserved Dictionary object to the registry, it is .... to restart QuickTest.

A) required
B) not required
C) may or may not be
D) None of above

6)
It is possible to create nested Dictionary objects.

A) True
B) False

7)
A function cannot return a dictionary object.

A) True
B) False

8)
A function can accept a dictionary object as a parameter.

A) True
B) False

9)
By default if you want to debug a dictionary object, then QTP debug window helps a lot in that.

A) True (QTP debug window can be used with Dictionary objects)
B) False (QTP debug window cannot be used with Dictionary objects)

10)
............ Removes a key, item pair from a Dictionary object

A) Remove Method
B) RemoveAll Method
C) Delete Method
D) DeleteAll Method

Answers

1) A, 2) B, 3) B, 4) C, 5) A, 6)A, 7) B, 8) A, 9) B, 10) A

QTP Questions 29 - API's

2008-11-10T22:13:00.000-08:00

1)
Text (or text area) checkpoints may behave differently in different run sessions depending on the APIs used in your application
A) True
B) False

2)
Using the Windows API, you can extend testing abilities and add usability
and flexibility to your...... .

A) tests
B) function libraries
C) applications
D) Both A & B

3)
API functions are located inside Windows DLLs

A) True
B) False

4)
Integrating QuickTest with Quality Center enables you to store and access
files in a Quality Center project, as well as use the ....... object to access the
wide range of functionality provided in the Quality Center Open Test
Architecture API.

A) QCUtil
B) QCUtility
C) QCUtill
D) QCUntil

5)
QuickTest works directly with the SAP Gui Scripting API to record your operations. Therefore, QuickTest adds steps to your test or component only when ........ are sent to the server.

A) API catches
B) API events
C) API starts
D) API stops

6)
QuickTest communicates directly with the SAP Gui Scripting API to record and run your operations on SAP Windows objects.

A) True
B) False

7)
........... declares references to external procedures in a dynamic-link library

A) Declare
B) Extern
C) Intern
D) None

8)
The QuickTest automation object model supplies a type library file named ........... This file is stored in \bin.

A) QTObjectModel.dll
B) QTObjectModell.dll
C) QTObjecModel.dll
D) Both A & B

9)
If you want to call a QuickTest test containing Stingray objects from WinRunner or vice versa, you must first ensure that WinRunner and QuickTest are both using the latest version of the Stingray agent. To do this, search for the .......... file in \bin and in \arch. Then replace the earlier file with the later one.

A) Stagent.dll
B) Stagerent.dll
C) Staent.dll
D) Stagents.dll

10)
In the General tab of Options dialog box, Use text recognition mechanisms in this order: (Please select valid options from below)

A) First Windows API then OCR
B) First Windows API then LCR
C) First Windows API then MCR
D) First Windows API then NCR

Answers

1) A, 2) D, 3) A, 4) A, 5) B, 6) A, 7) A, 8) A, 9)A, 10) A

QTP Questions 28 - Object Properties

2008-08-24T23:41:00.000-07:00

1

In the Expert View, you can use the Object property to activate the method for a Web object.
A) True
B) False

2

The test object property set for each test object is created and maintained by ....... The run-time object property set for each run-time object is created and maintained by the object creator

A) Microsoft
B) Adobe
C) HP
D) QuickTest

3

You can view or modify the test object property values that are stored with your component in the Object Properties or Object Repository dialog box.

A) True
B) False

4

It is possible that you can use the Object property to access the native properties of any run-time object.
A) True
B) False

5
You cannot retrieve the values of test object properties from a run-time object.
A) True
B) False

6

You can use the GetTOProperty, GetTOProperties, and SetTOProperty methods in your ........ to set and retrieve the test object property values of the test object.

A) Test
B) Function Library
C) Applciation area
D) Both A & B

7

Because QuickTest refers to the temporary version of the test object during the run session, any changes you make using the SetTOProperty method apply only during the course of the run session, and do not affect the values stored in the test object repository.
A) True
B) False

8

You can use the Object Spy at any time to view ..... properties and values of the objects in the application you are testing.

A) run-time
B) test object
C) Both A & B
D) None
9

You cannot add to the list of properties that QuickTest uses to identify an object.
A) True
B) False

10

The default properties for a Link object (hypertext link) are...

A) Name
B) text
C) HTML tag
D) Tag

Answers

1) A, 2) D, 3) A, 4) A, 5) B, 6) D, 7) A, 8) C, 9)B, 10) B,C

QTP Questions 27 - Object Repository - 2

2008-08-24T04:22:00.000-07:00

1)
If an object with the same name and description is located in both the local object repository and in a shared object repository that is associated with the same action, the action uses the ...... object definition.

A) shared
B) local
C) Can use any
D) None of above.

2)
You cannot use the same shared object repository with multiple actions.

A) True
B) False

3)
If one or more of the property values of an object in your application differ from the property values QuickTest uses to identify the object, your test ..... fail.

A) may
B) must
C) should
D) will certainly

4)
You can open as many shared object repositories as you want.

A) True
B) False

5)
You can also open an object repository from the .......... in the File menu.

A) Recent Folders list
B) Current Files list
C) Recent Files list
D) Both A & c

6)
QuickTest saves the object repository with a ..... extension in the specified location

A) .vsr
B) .tsr
C) .lsr
D) .qsr

7)
If you opened the object repository in ...... mode, you must enable editing for the object repository before you can modify it.

A) read-write mode
B) read-execute mode
C) read-write-execute mode
D) read-only mode

8)
You can also modify a shared object repository by merging it with another shared object repository.

A) True
B) False

9)
You can also add objects to a shared object repository using the ....... option.

A) Navigate and Learn
B) Navigate and earn
C) Navigate
D) Navigate and Click

10)
While Finding Objects in an Object Repository, You can use the Find and Replace dialog box to replace property or object names.

A) True
B) False

Answers

1) B, 2) B, 3) A, 4) A, 5) C, 6) B, 7) D, 8) A, 9) A, 10) B

QTP Questions 26 - Actions - 2

2008-08-24T04:20:00.000-07:00

1)
The ...... enables you to view either the entire test flow (the calls to the actions in the test) or you can view the steps for a selected reusable or external action.

A) Action Menu
B) Action List
C) Action Toolbar
D) Action View

2)
You can view the ....... of the original action in the General tab of the Action Properties dialog box.

A) Parameters
B) Location
C) Associated Repositories
D) Type

3)
You can create an additional call to any reusable or external action in your test by pressing ...... while you drag and drop the action to another location at a parallel (sibling) level within your test.

A) F3
B) alt
C) shift
D) ctrl

4)
You can use action parameters in any step in your action (including function calls).

A) True
B) False

5)
Input values for an action parameter can be retrieved

A) from the test (for a top-level action)
B) from the parameters of the parent action that calls it (for a nested action)
C) from the output of a previous action call (for a sibling action)
D) All of above

6)
The Action Call Properties dialog box enables you to set options that apply only to a ...... action call.

A) following
B) preceeding
C) specific
D) internal

7)
Specifying input and output parameter values in action calls is .......

A) required
B) optional
C) required only for internal action
D) both A & B

8)
You can share a value that is generated in one action with other actions in your test by storing the value in the ..... Data Table.

A) Internal
B) External
C) Local
D) Global

9)
ExitAction:

A) Exits the current action, regardless of its iteration attributes.
B) Exits the current iteration of the action.
C) Exits the test, regardless of its iteration attributes.
D) Exits the current global iteration.

10)
If the action called by the RunAction statement includes an ExitAction statement, the RunAction statement can return the value of the ExitAction's RetVal argument.

A) True
B) False

Answers

1) B, 2) B, 3) D, 4) A, 5) D, 6) C, 7) b, 8) d, 9) A, 10) A

QTP Questions 25 - Record & Run Options

2008-08-24T04:03:00.000-07:00

1)
Before you record or run a test on a Web or Windows application, you can use the .... dialog box to instruct QuickTest which applications to open when you begin to record or run your test.

A) Record and Run
B) Record and Run Settings
C) Run and Record
D) Run and Record Settings

2)
If you define environment variables to specify the record and run details, those values override the values in the Record and Run dialog box.

A) True
B) False

3)
You can record tests only on ............

A) Microsoft Internet Explorer
B) Netscape Browser
C) Mozilla Firefox
D) Opera

4)
Record and Run Settings window contains two tabs

A) Web & Window
B) Web & Windows Applications
C) Web & Window Applications
D) Web & Windows Application

5)
You can add up to ... applications to the application list displayed in the Windows Applications tab

A) 10
B) 12
C) 24
D) 64

6)
You can use special, predefined environment variables to specify the applications or browsers you want to use for your test while specifying the Record and Run Details

A) True
B) False

7)
If you select the option to Record and Run on any application or browser (the upper radio button in each tab of the Record and Run Settings dialog box), QuickTest ..... any defined record and run environment variables.

A) does not
B) ignores
C) may or may not ignore
D) None of above

8)
To use environment variables to specify the applications or browsers you want to use for your test run, you must use the appropriate variable names E.g. the variable name for the Web address to display in the browser is

A) URL_VAR
B) URL_EN
C) URL_ENV
D) URL_VA

9)
The setting of the Active Screen capture level (Tools > Options > Active Screen tab) can significantly affect the ..... for your test and the functionality of the Active Screen while editing your test.

A) repeating time
B) waiting time
C) average time
D) recording time

10)
The Web tab (Record and Run Settings dialog box) is available only when Web support is installed and loaded.

A) True
B) False

Answers

1) B, 2) A, 3) A, 4) B, 5) A, 6) A, 7) B, 8) C, 9) D, 10) A

QTP Questions 24 - Add-in

2008-08-24T03:58:00.000-07:00

1)
You can install the QuickTest...... add-ins (Web, ActiveX, Visual Basic) when you install QuickTest Professional, or you can install the QuickTest built-in add-ins at a later time by running the installation again.

A) internal
B) external
C) built-in
D) All of above

2)
Add-ins that are installed separately from the QuickTest Professional installation are referred to as ....... add-ins.

A) internal
B) external
C) built-in
D) built-out

3)
When QuickTest opens, you can choose which of the installed add-ins you want to load using the QuickTest Professional - ...... dialog box.

A) Add-In Window
B) Add-In
C) Add-In Manager
D) Add-In Management

4)
Installing and Loading an Add-in is one and the same thing.

A) True
B) False

5)
You can install Add-in Upgrade patches by running the relevant patch executable from the \...... folder.

A) AddinsUpdate
B) AddinsUpgrade
C) Addins_upgrade
D) Both A & B

6)
In Add-in Manager dialog box, Time-Limited column displays values only when using a QuickTest seat license — not a concurrent license.

A) True
B) False

7)
You can view the list of add-ins that are currently installed or loaded by choosing ...................

A) File > Settings
B) Tools > Options and click the General tab.
C) Help > About QuickTest Professional.
D) both A & B

8)
To maximize performance and object identification reliability, load all the add-ins.

A) True
B) False

9)
The add-in is displayed as Not Licensed in the License column of the Add-in Manager dialog box:

A) If an add-in license has not yet been installed for a specific external add-in.
B) if no concurrent license server within your subnet has a registered license for the specific add-in
C) if all concurrent licenses are in use
D) All of Above

10)
You can use only one license type per session for QuickTest Professional and all loaded add-ins-either seat or concurrent.

A) True
B) False

Answers

1) C, 2) B, 3) C, 4) B, 5) B, 6) A, 7) C, 8) B, 9) D, 10) A

QTP Questions 23 - Debug

2008-08-24T03:55:00.000-07:00

1)
To debug a function library, you must first associate it with a test and then debug it from that test.

A) True
B) False

2)
To detect and isolate defects in a test or function library, you can control the run session using the .... command

A) Pause
B) Run
C) F14
D) Session

3)
When the test or function library run stops at a breakpoint, you can use the ...... to check and modify the values of VBScript objects and variables.

A) Debug Window
B) Debug Dialog
C) Debug Viewer
D) Debug page

4)
While the test and function libraries are running in debug mode, they are read-only

A) True
B) False

5)
You cannot debug a file that is called using an ...... statement, or any of the functions contained in the file.

A) ExecuteFiles
B) Execute_File
C) Execute-File
D) ExecuteFile

6)
The debug session can continue at the backend while you can perform file operations like opening a new test etc.

A) True
B) False

7)
Any changes you apply to external resources saved in the file system, such as function libraries, are implemented only when the test is closed and reopened but any changes you apply to any external resource that is saved in your Quality Center project, such as a function library, will be implemented immediately.

A) True
B) False

8)
You can use the .......... command to begin your debug session at a specific point in your test.

A) Start from Step
B) Run to Step
C) Run from Step
D) Start to Step

9)
You can specify the time (in milliseconds) QuickTest pauses between each step by modifying the ..... option in the Run tab of the Options dialog box (Tools > Options).

A) Delay step execution by
B) Delay every step execution by
C) Delay all steps execution by
D) Delay each step execution by

10)
To display the Debug toolbar, choose ............

A) View > Toolbar > Debug
B) View > Toolbars > Debugs
C) Views > Toolbar > Debug
D) View > Toolbars > Debug

Answers

1) A, 2) A, 3) C, 4) A, 5) D, 6) B, 7) B, 8) A, 9) D, 10) D

Quality Center Questions 18 - Requirements Specification

2008-08-23T03:36:00.000-07:00

1)
After you define a releases tree in the Releases module, you continue the
application testing process by specifying ........

A) Requirements
B) Releases
C) Plan Tests
D) Either B or A

2)
Requirement topics are recorded in the Requirements module by creating a requirements ......

A) graph
B) tree
C) Path
D) plan

3)
The requirements ....... is a graphical representation of your requirements specification, displaying the hierarchical relationship between different requirements.

A) graph
B) plan
C) Path
D) tree

4)
For each requirement topic, a QA tester creates a list of ....... in the requirements tree.

A) detailed requirements
B) detailed specifications
C) detailed plans
D) detailed sub-requirements

5)
Each requirement in the tree is described in detail and cannot include any relevant attachments.

A) True
B) False

6)
After defining your requirements, you can add traceability between the requirements. When analyzing the impact of a change proposed in a specific requirement, ....... shows the other requirements that the change might affect.

A) equality
B) link-ability
C) traceability
D) cross-links

7)
QA managers assign the requirements to releases and cycles in the releases tree in the Releases module.

A) True
B) False

8)
The assigned requirements are then used as a basis for the test plan in the Test Plan module. The tests you create during the test plan phase are then linked to these requirements to create ......

A) linkages
B) linked-requirements
C) requirements plan
D) coverage

9)
QA managers review the requirements, they change a requirement from a Not Reviewed
status to a ..... status once it is approved.

A) Passed
B) Reviewed
C) Partially reviewed
D) Both B & C

10)
You can also import requirements to your Quality Center project from ........

A) Microsoft Word
B) Excel
C) other third-party requirement management tools
D) All of above

11)
In the Requirements Tree view, Indicator columns indicates that the specified requirement has

A) attachments, linked defects, alerts, and follow up flags
B) attachments, linked defects, alerts
C) attachments, linked defects and follow up flags
D) linked defects, alerts, and follow up flags

12)
To find a specific requirement by ReqID in the Requirements Tree view, choose ............., and enter the requirement ID.

A) Requirements > Find Requirement
B) Requirements > Go to Requirement
C) Requirements > Get Requirement
D) Requirements > Display Requirement

13)
The Requirements ...... view enables you to display requirements in a flat
non-hierarchical view. Each line in the .... displays a separate requirement.

A) File, file
B) hierarchical, hierarchy
c) Grid, Grid
D) Both B & C

14)
The ... Analysis view enables you to analyze the breakdown of child requirements according to test ..... status.

A) Plan
B) Requirement
C) Coverage
D) Task

15)
You can access the Requirements menu bar from the Requirements module by pressing the shortcut key ....

A) F6
B) F7
C) F8
D) F9

16)
The Requirement module field Direct Cover Status means

A) The current status of the requirement
B) The previous status of the requirement
C) The coming status of the requirement
D) The fixed status of the requirement

17)
You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Requirements module.

A) True
B) False

18)
You start a requirements tree by adding requirements to the Requirements root folder.

A) True
B) False

19)
You can add, view, and edit Microsoft Word rich text from within Quality Center, without the need to edit the text in Word.

A) True
B) False

20)
You cannot update your requirements directly in the requirements tree or grid, or in the Requirement Details dialog box.

A) True
B) False

21)
You can search for a particular requirement in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid using the ....... command.

A) Search
B) Find
C) Look
D) Get

22)
You can send e-mail about a requirement to other users in your Quality Center project

A) True
B) False

23)
You cannot copy a requirement within the same project or between projects.

A) True
B) False

24)
Test coverage, defect linkage, and risk-based quality management data for the requirement are not copied.

A) True
B) False

25)
Methods you can use to create tests from requirements:

A) Convert Requirements to Tests
B) Generate a Test from Requirements.
C) Get a test from a requirement
D) Both A & B
E) Both B & C

26)
Using the Requirements Traceability tab in the Requirement Details view, you can add traceability links to and from a selected requirement. ....... links indicate requirements that affect a selected requirement. ....... links indicate requirements that are affected by a selected requirement.

A) Trace from, Trace to
B) Trace to, Trace from
C) Trace from select, Trace to select
D) Trace to select, Trace from select

27)
When a requirement changes, Quality Center alerts the affected requirements. The alerts can be seen by all users.

A) True
B) False

28)
You can display traceability relationships that exist between requirements in the ...... tab. This tab contains the Trace From and Trace To grids.

A) traceability
B) Relationships
C) Req-traceability
D) traceability-Req

29)
The ...... feature enables you to calculate at which level to test each requirement, based on the nature of the requirement and the resources you have available.

A) Level-based quality management
B) Calculate-based quality management
C) risk-based quality management
D) None of above

30)
You can assign or calculate the Risk Category of an assessment requirement. The Risk Category is composed of its .....

A) Business Criticality & Failure Probability
B) Business Probability & Failure Criticality
C) Priority & Severity
D) None of above

31)
Quality Center defines four Testing Levels:

A) First, second, third, and fourth
B) Full, Partial, Basic, and None
C) Full, Partial, Basic, and moderate
D) Partial,Basic, moderate and Advanced

32)
The ...... link displays the requirements for which you did not determine a Risk Category or exclude explicitly from the analysis.

A) missing risk assessment
B) miss assessment
C) missing assessment
D) exclude assessment

Answers

1) A , 2) B , 3) D, 4) A , 5) B , 6) C , 7) A , 8) D , 9) B , 10) D, 11) A , 12) B, 13) C, 14) C, 15) D, 16) A, 17 A, 18) A, 19 A), 20) B,21) B,22) A,23) B,24) A ,25) D ,26) A,27) A,28) B,29) C, 30) A, 31) B, 32) C

Quality Center Questions 17 - Release Management

2008-08-23T03:28:00.000-07:00

1)
You begin the application testing process by defining a releases tree in the.......

A) Requirements module
B) Releases module
C) Plan Tests module
D) Either B or C

2)
Releases tree enables the modeling of upcoming releases within a hierarchical tree structure.

A) True
B) False

3)
A release represents a ..... in one or more applications that willbe available for distribution at the same time.

A) group of releases
B) group of changes
C) group of defects
D) group of requests

4)
After defining the release, a QA manager defines ...... A ..... is a set of Development and quality assurance efforts performed to achieve a common goal based on the release timeline.

A) cycles, cycle
B) Tries, Try
C) Priorities, Priority
D) Files, File

5)
After defining the releases tree, the QA manager defines and reviews the........ in the Requirements module and assigns them to releases andcycles.

A) Plans
B) groups of plans
C) upcoming modules
D) requirements

6)
After the QA manager assigns requirements, the QA team leader assigns each..... folder in the Test Lab module to a cycle.

A) test sets
B) test set
C) tests set
D) testing set

7)
A ...... is a group of testinstances in a Quality Center project designed to achieve specific test goals.

A) test sets
B) test set
C) tests set
D) testing set

8)
A defect can be submitted to a Quality Center project from any module atany stage of the testing process.

A) True
B) False

9)
While reviewing and deciding which new defects need to be fixed, the QAmanager assigns them to the appropriate ..........

A) release and cycle
B) cycle and release
C) defect and cycle
D) cycle and defect

10)
The QA manager cannot track the progress of the testing process in real time by analyzing the releases tree and ensuring that it matches the release goals.

A) True
B) False

11)
In the Progress tab, in the Coverage Progress graph, the Planned coverage curve below the Assigned requirements curve indicates the percentage of requirements that are ..... throughout the release.

A) run
B) covered
C) passed
D) assigned

12)
The ....... helps you draw conclusions quickly and see the number ofdefects submitted over the course of a release or cycle.

A) Details tab
B) Attachments tabC) Progress tab
D) Quality tab

13)
The defects arecategorized by ...... in terms of how they impact system operation.

A) Priority
B) severity

14)
You can move a release folder or a release to a different location in thereleases tree.

A) True
B) False

15)
The Releases root folder can also bemoved.

A) True
B) False

16)
You can create a duplicate of a cycle within the same release.

A) True
B) False

17)
Deleting a release folder, release, or cycle, does not unassigns theassociated requirements, test set folders, and defects.

A) True
B) False

18)
You can also move a release folder or a release to a new location in thereleases tree by dragging it.

A) True
B) False

Answers

1) B , 2) A , 3) B, 4) A , 5) D , 6) B , 7) B , 8) A , 9) A , 10) B, 11) B , 12) D, 13) B, 14) A, 15) B, 16) A, 17 B, 18) A

Quality Center Questions 16 - Basics

2008-08-21T03:15:00.000-07:00

1)
You access Quality Center over the ......, via a Web browser.

A) Internet
B) a corporate intranet
C) Mobile Internet
D) Both A & B

2)
Quality Center also features a sophisticated system for tracking application
defects, enabling you to monitor defects closely from initial detection until
resolution.

A) True
B) False

3)
Test management with Quality Center involves five phases:

A) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Run Tests.
B) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects.
C) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Analyze Tests.
D) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Analyze Tests, Track Defects.

4)
Each Quality Center project is supported by a ...... that stores project information.

A) Root folder
B) Database
C) Flat File
D) Both B & C

5)
Quality Center enables you to manage user access to a project. The ..... determines the privileges that the user has within a project.

A) QC group
B) user_Account group
C) Account group
D) user group

6)
You can import data from...... to a Quality Center project.

A) Word or Notepad
B) Word or Wordpad
C) Word or Excel
D) Word or Power Point

7)
You launch Quality Center on your machine from your Web browser.

A) True
B) False

8)
Quality Center prompts you to install ...... if it is not already installed on your machine.

A) Microsoft Java 2.0
B) Microsoft Visio 13.0
C) Microsoft Visual studio 2.0
D) Microsoft .NET Framework 2.0

9)
Quality Center has the following modules, which are accessible from the sidebar:

A) Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Analysis
B) Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Business Components
C) Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects, Analysis
D) Releases, Requirements, Test Plan, Test Lab, Defects

10)
When you customize your project, you can instruct Quality Center to preserve a log of values for the system and user fields in your Requirement, Test, Test Set, Test Instance, and Defect entities.

A) True
B) False

11)
The ..... can send messages to users connected to Quality Center projects informing them about important maintenance or other issues.

A) site administer
B) site Controller
C) site Analyser
D) site administrator

12)
Quality Center organizes and displays data in ......:

A) grids
B) trees
C) Folders
D) Both A & B

13)
You can no longer customize data by specifying the order in which columns appear,
and by changing column size.

A) True
B) False

14)
You can filter Quality Center data to display only those records that meet
the criteria that you define.

A) True
B) False

15)
When defining a filter, you can also include a cross filter. This is an advanced
....... on an associated item such as requirements, tests, test sets, or
defects.

A) Secondary filter
B) Primary filter
C) cross filter
D) Second filter

16)
By default, records appear in Quality Center according to the ....

A) Increasing order
B) Decreasing order
C) order in which they were added.
D) order in which they were deleted.

17)
You cannot copy and paste the filter, sort, and group by settings to and from the
Clipboard.

A) True
B) False

18)
You can use text search to search for records in predefined fields of the ........

A) Requirements, Test Plan, and Defects modules.
B) Releases, Test Plan, and Defects modules.
C) Requirements and Defects modules.
D) Requirements, Execute Tests, and Defects modules.

19)
If you have defined filter conditions for a module, you can restrict the search to the filtered records, or you can search all records in the module

A) True
B) False

20)
Text search is only available if it has been enabled for the project.

A) True
B) False

21)
You can export the data in a grid as a ......

A) text file, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word, or HTML document.
B) text file, Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word
C) text file, Microsoft Excel, or HTML document.
D) Microsoft Excel, Microsoft Word, or HTML document.

22)
When a requirement, test, or defect changes, Quality Center alerts the associated entities and can notify those responsible for any associated entities.

A) True
B) False

23)
A ..... indicates that the alert is new. A gray flag indicates that the alert has already been read.

A) Green flag
B) Pink flag
C) red flag
D) Blue flag

24)
Quality Center enables you to add your own alerts, in addition to automatic traceability notifications. You can use ..... flags to remind yourself to follow up on something.

A) Alert Me
B) follow up
C) follow Me
D) follow

25)
Throughout the testing process, you can add attachments to help illustrate your work.

A) True
B) False

26)
You can use a Uniform Resource Locator (URL) to a Quality Center record as an attachment.

A) True
B) False

27)
A follow up flag is specific to your user login name. Anyone else viewing the record does not see your follow up alert.

A) True
B) False

28)
A ....... is a view of a Quality Center window with the settings you apply to it.

A) Personal view
B) My view
C) favorite view
D) fav view

29)
By default, Quality Center displays the four most recently used views on the Favorites menu. You can define the number of views displayed on the menu by setting the ....... parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.

A) FAVORITES_DEPTH
B) FAVORITES-DEPTH
C) FAVORITE_DEPTH
D) FAVORITE_DEPTHS

30)
You save favorite views in either a .... folder or a ..... folder. Views in a
.... folder are accessible to all users. Views in a ..... folder are accessible only to the user who created them.

A) public, private, public, private
B) Root, Base, Root, Base,
C) locked, unlocked, locked, unlocked
D) Both B & C

Answers

1) D , 2) A , 3) B, 4) B , 5) D , 6) C , 7) A , 8) D , 9) B , 10) A, 11) D , 12) D, 13) B, 14) A, 15) C, 16) C, 17 B, 18) A, 19) A, 20) A, 21) A, 22) A, 23) C, 24) B, 25) A, 26) A, 27) A, 28) C, 29) A, 30) A

LoadRunner Questions 10

2008-07-20T02:32:00.001-07:00

1)
If the load generator is ......., then LoadRunner stores the scripts and results on a shared network drive, and the options for setting the location are all disabled.

A) primaryhost
B) localhost
C) secondaryhost
D) None

2)
To allow LoadRunner to run your application under the Korn shell, you first need to make sure that the ....... file contains all of the LoadRunner environment settings

A) .log
B) .profile
C) .usr
D) .startup

3)
If you are monitoring or running Vusers over the firewall, the UNIX Environment settings are more relevant.

A) True
B) False

4)
The maximum number of Vuser types that the load generator will initialize or stop simultaneously is

A) Run-Time Quota
B) Max-Vuser Quota
C) Max Quota
D) Vuser Quota

5)
In Load Generator Information dialog, If you select the Enable firewall option, the Temporary directory option for storing temporary files is enabled.

A) True
B) False

6)
In Load Generator Information dialog, The Security tab is disabled if the load generator is Localhost.

A) True
B) False

7)
You can use LoadRunner’s .......... to remotely manage multiple load generators running in your load testing scenario on a terminal server.

A) Terminal Support Manager
B) Terminal Services Manager
C) Terminal Controller Manager
D) Terminal Manager

8)
Only users with administrator privileges can connect from the Controller to a local load generator via a terminal services session.

A) True
B) False

9)
While editing and viewing the details of a script used by an individual Vuser, Modifying the run-time settings for one Vuser modifies the run-time settings for all the Vusers in the group that are using the same script.

A) True
B) False

10)
When you run a scenario, by default, the script is copied to a ...... directory on the Vuser group machine. This enables the Vuser group load generator to access the script locally instead of over a network.

A) root
B) default
C) temporary
D) main

Answers

1) B , 2) B , 3) B, 4) D , 5) B , 6) A , 7) B , 8) A , 9) A , 10) C

LoadRunner Questions 9

2008-07-20T02:32:00.000-07:00

1)
By default, LoadRunner stores temporary files on the load generator during scenario execution, in a temporary directory specified by the load generator’s ....... environment variables.

A) TMP
B) TEMP
C) L_TMP
D) Both A & B
E) Both A & C

2)
A the time of creating Vuser Group, to allow the load generator to take part in the scenario, check ....

A) Enable load generator to take part in the scenario.
B) Enable load generator
C) Enable load generator in the scenario.
D) Enable load generator for scenario.

3)
Select the true statement

A) By default, all the Vuser groups displayed in the Scenario Groups pane are enabled to run in the scenario.
B) By default, all the Vuser groups displayed in the Scenario Groups pane are disabled to run in the scenario.
C) By default, some of the Vuser groups displayed in the Scenario Groups pane are enabled to run in the scenario.
D) None

4)
While Modifying a Vuser Group, You can modify the script, and load generator for a Vuser group directly from the ........ pane of the Controller, or by using the Group Information dialog box.

A) Scenario Group
B) Scenario Groups
C) Scenario load Groups
D) Scenario vuser Groups

5)
To run Visual C++ Vusers on a remote load generator, you must add the ...... of the Vuser to the files used by script list.

A) .dll
B) .Usr
C) .Vsr
D) .h

6)
Once you have created your Vuser groups, you can sort them by or

A) group name, script name,quantity of Vusers assigned to the group, load generator name.
B) group name, script name,quality of Vusers assigned to the group, load generator name.
C) group name, Vuser name,quantity of Vusers assigned to the group, load generator name.
D) group name

7)
Pausing a Vuser group will not affect its transaction response time.

A) True
B) False

8)
Opens one window containing all of the run-time settings in blank mode. In this mode, you set only the options that you would like to modify for all selected scripts. All other run-time settings remain unchanged.

A) Shared RTS
B) Individual RTS
C) Both
D) None

9)
The Controller monitors a Windows load generator’s CPU usage and automatically stops loading Vusers on a load generator when it becomes overloaded.

A) True
B) False

10)
In the Load Generator Information dialog box, select the ...... tab to specify the result directory for the performance data that LoadRunner gathers from each load generator during a scenario.

A) Run-Time File Storage
B) Load-Time File Storage
C) Run-Time Result Storage
D) Load-Time Result Storage

Answers

1)D , 2) A , 3) A, 4) B , 5) A , 6) A , 7) B , 8) A , 9) A , 10) A

LoadRunner Questions 8

2008-07-20T02:31:00.000-07:00

1)
The Controller window has the following main views

A) Design view.
B) Run view.
C) Script View
D) Graph View
E) Both A & C
F) Both A & B

2)
You can run ...... LoadRunner commands by clicking a button on the toolbar in the Controller.

A) One
B) Two
C) Five
D) many

3)
After you create the scenario, LoadRunner saves the information in a scenario file with extension.......

A) .ldr
B) .lrs
C) .lds
D) .lrd

4)
The New command creates a completely new scenario. The New command unclears all the information displayed in the Controller windows.

A) True
B) False

5)
Closing a scenario closes all the Controller windows.

A) True
B) False

6)
During scenario execution, you use the ...... pane in the Run view to monitor the actions of all the Vusers and Vuser groups in the scenario.

A) Scenario Groups
B) Controller Groups
C) Scenario Status
D) COntroller Status

7)
To test your system with LoadRunner, you must create a ........ —a file with information about the test session.

A) script
B) session
C) scenario
D) none

8)
In a goal-oriented scenario, you define the goals you want your test to achieve, and LoadRunner automatically builds a scenario for you, based on these goals.

A) True
B) False

9)
You create Vuser groups that contain Vusers with ......... characteristics

A) shared
B) similar
C) combined
D) Both A & B

10)
The Scenario Groups pane lists all enabled and disabled Vuser Groups, their paths, the number of Vusers assigned to each group, and the load generators.

A) True
B) False

Answers

1) F , 2) D , 3) B, 4) B , 5) A , 6) A , 7) C , 8) A , 9) D , 10) A

LoadRunner Questions - 2

2008-07-20T02:15:00.000-07:00

1)
The three tabs in the Launcher window of a Loadrunner 9.10 are

A) Load Testing, Diagnostics, Help
B) Load Testing, Launcher, What's New
C) Load Testing, Diagnostics, What's New
D) LoadRunner, Diagnostics, What's New

2)
By default, the Controller displays the

A) Running Vusers, Transaction Response Time, Hits per Second
B) Running Vusers, Transaction Response Time, Windows Resources graphs.
C) Transaction Response Time, Hits per Second, Windows Resources graphs.
D) Running Vusers, Transaction Response Time, Hits per Second, Windows Resources graphs.

3)
Transaction Response Time - whole scenario graph lets you monitor

A) the amount of time it takes for each transaction to be completed
B) the Windows resource usage measured during a scenario
C) the number of hits (HTTP requests) on the Web server made by Vusers
D) Transactions

4)
The Error Statistics graph provides details about the ......

A) number of errors
B) the time at which they occurred during the scenario
C) Both A & B
D) None

5)
Advanced users can record several protocols during a single recording session in a ...... script.

A) multi-user
B) multi-protocol
C) multi-action
D) Both A & C

6)
The ...... lists each step or task in the script creation process.

A) Task pane
B) Instruction Pane
C) Tool bars
D) Graphs

7)
The recording summary includes the protocol information and a list of the actions created during the session.

A) True
B) False

8)
Script view is a text-based view that lists the actions of the Vuser as .....

A) API functions
B) C functions
C) ANSI C functions
D) Both A & B

9)
In LoadRunner Run-Time settings Run Logic means:

A) the number of repetitions
B) the time to wait between repetitions
C) the time the user stops to think between steps
D) None of above

10)
VuGen’s run-time playback feature displays the Vuser activities in real time as you playback the recorded script.

A) True
B) False

Answers

1) C , 2) D , 3) A, 4) C , 5) B , 6) A , 7) A , 8) A , 9) A , 10) B

LoadRunner Questions 7

2008-07-20T02:14:00.005-07:00

1)
Successful load testing requires that you develop a thorough .......

A) test case
B) test script
C) test plan
D) test guide

2)
A scenario includes a list of machines on which Vusers run, a list of scripts that the Vusers run, and a specified number of Vusers or Vuser groups that run during the scenario.

A) True
B) False

3)
You can also create a scenario using the ......., in which you define the total number of Vusers to be used in the scenario, and the load generators and percentage of the total number of Vusers to be assigned to each Vuser script.

A) Percentage Mode
B) LoadRunner Agent
C) performance analyser
D) COntroller

4)
For Web tests, you can create a ....... scenario, in which you define the goals you want your test to achieve. LoadRunner automatically builds a scenario for you, based on these goals.

A) goal-based
B) goal-oriented
C) goal-test
D) goal-script

5)
You can measure network and server response time, including response time of the GUI front end, by running Vusers (not GUI) on the client machine.

A) True
B) False

6)
You can use LoadRunner to create ....... on the system: force the system to handle extended activity in a compressed time period to simulate the kind of activity a system would normally experience over a period of weeks or months.

A) Load
B) Stress
C) Volume
D) None

7)
By default, the Controller opens with the New Scenario dialog box.

A) False
B) True

8)
You can select one of two methods to create a scenario: ........

A) Manual Scenario
B) Goal-Oriented Scenario
C) Automated Scenario
D) Both A & C
E) Both A & B

9)
You can change the maximum number of scripts displayed in the Available Scripts list by modifying the following registry key: HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Mercury Interactive\RecentScripts\.........

A) maximum_num_of_scripts
B) max_num_of_scripts
C) max_number_of_scripts
D) max_num_of_script

10)
While selecting the script or scripts that you want to use in your scenario, for choosing a VB Vuser script, browse to locate the .....,......... file.

A) .vsr
B) .tsr
C) .qsr
D) .usr
E) Both A & D

Answers

1) C , 2) A , 3) A, 4) B , 5) B , 6) B , 7) B , 8) E , 9) B , 10) D

LoadRunner Questions 6

2008-07-20T02:14:00.003-07:00

1)
You insert ...... points into Vuser scripts to emulate heavy user load on the server

A) Load
B) rendezvous
C) Loader
D) Both B & C

2)
When you execute a scenario, the Controller distributes each Vuser in the scenario to a .......

A) Properties Viewing Area
B) performance analyser
C) Controller
D) load generator

3)
On each Windows load generator, you install the ........

A) Remote Agent Dispatcher (Process)
B) LoadRunner Agent
C) performance analyser
D) Both A & B

4)
The LoadRunner Agent enables the .......... and the load generator to communicate with each other.

A) Remote Agent Dispatcher (Process)
B) Controller
C) Vuser
D) instructor

5)
Application Deployment Solution, E-business, Java are types of

A) Addins
B) Controllers
C) Vusers
D) Dispatchers

6)
LoadRunner can integrate functional testing scripts in the form of .......... Vuser scripts into a load testing scenario.

A) Manual
B) Function
C) GUI
D) AUT

7)
GUI Vusers generate load on a server by submitting input directly to the server.

A) False
B) True

8)
Because Vusers are not reliant on client software, you can use Vusers to test server performance even before the client software has been developed.

A) False
B) True

9)
Vusers have a very easy to understand user interface

A) False
B) True

10)
You develop Vuser scripts ...........

A) recording with HP Virtual User Generator (VuGen)
B) using LoadRunner’s Vuser script templates
C) recording with HP Virtual Composer
D) Both A & B

Answers

1) B , 2) D , 3) D, 4) B , 5) C , 6) C , 7) A , 8) B , 9) A , 10) D

LoadRunner Questions 5

2008-07-20T02:14:00.002-07:00

1)
The aim of the analysis session is to find the failures in your system’s performance and then pinpoint the source of these failures.

A) True
B) False

2)
Analysis contains three primary windows

A) Properties Explorer, Properties window, Properties Viewing Area
B) Session Explorer, Properties window, Graph Viewing Area
C) Intranet Explorer, Properties window, Graphics Viewing Area
D) Graph Explorer, Properties window, Graph Viewing Area

3)
Service Level Agreements are specific goals that you define for your load test scenario

A) True
B) False

4)
SLAs can be defined before running a scenario in the Analysis, or after running a scenario in Controller itself.

A) True
B) False

5)
The preferred place to define an SLA is before a scenario run in the Controller.

A) True
B) False

6)
While Analysing your scenario, in the Statistics Summary section, you can see that a maximum of .... Vusers ran in this test.

A) 70
B) 71
C) 72
D) 75

7)
The 5 Worst Transactions table shows you up to the .... worst performing transactions where SLAs were defined.

A) fifteen
B) ten
C) three
D) five

8)
The Scenario Behavior Over Time section shows how each transaction performed during different time intervals. The green squares show time intervals where the transaction performed within the SLA threshold, red squares where the transaction failed, and ..... squares where no relevant SLA was defined.

A) Pink
B) Yellow
C) Grey
D) White

9)
While Analysing your scenario, You can access available graphs from the ...........

A) Session Explorer.
B) Section Explorer.
C) Session ID Explorer.
D) Graph Explorer

10)
You can join two graphs together to see the effect of the one graph’s data upon the other graph’s data. This is called ....... two graphs.

A) correlating
B) combining
C) Composing
D) Correcting

Answers

1) A , 2) B , 3) A, 4) B , 5) A , 6) A , 7) D , 8) C , 9) A , 10) A

LoadRunner Questions 4

2008-07-20T02:14:00.001-07:00

1)
When emulating users, you should be able to view their actions in real time and make sure they are performing the right steps. The Controller lets you view the actions in real time using the ...... viewer.

A) run-time
B) real-time
C) run-action
D) view-time

2)
To check the progress of an individual Vuser during a running test, you can view a ...... containing a text summary of the Vuser’s actions.

A) login file
B) logged file
C) log_view file
D) log file

3)
The Vuser log will only contain information if you enabled the logging feature in the Run-Time Settings Log tab.

A) True
B) False

4)
If an application starts to fail under heavy load, you are likely to encounter errors and failed transactions. The Controller displays error messages in the ..... window.

A) Error
B) Main
C) Output
D) Input

5)
To see how well the application performed under load, you need to look at the transaction response time and determine whether the transaction was within an acceptable limit for the customer.

A) True
B) False

6)
LoadRunner provides you with ...... different types of goals in a goaloriented scenario.

A) four
B) nine
C) three
D) five

7)
When you design a load test scenario, you can define ....... for the performance metrics.

A) goals
B) service level agreements (SLAs)
C) scripts
D) Both A & C
E) Both A & B

8)
Users do not log on and off the system at precisely the same time. To emulate real users, LoadRunner provides the capability in the ....... tab (In the Edit Scenario Goal dialog box,) for users to gradually log on and off the system.

A) Load Goal
B) Load Behavior
C) Load_Goal
D) Goal Load

9)
The Hits per Second graph shows the number of hits (HTTP requests) made to the Web server by Vusers during each second of the scenario run.

A) True
B) False

10)
It is very important to watch transaction response time to see the response times your customers will have when the server is under load.

A) True
B) False

Answers

1) A , 2) D , 3) A, 4) C , 5) A , 6) D , 7) E , 8) B , 9) A , 10) A

LoadRunner Questions 3

2008-07-20T02:14:00.000-07:00

1)
........ saves the dynamic (changing) values, in our case the session ID, to a parameter.

A) Correction
B) Correlation
C) CoSave
D) Both B & C

2)
The way to mark a user step as a transaction is to place a begin transaction marker before the first step of the transaction and an end transaction marker after the last step.

A) True
B) False

3)
A ......... verifies that expected information appears on a Web page while the script is running.

A) Content Checker
B) Content Check
C) Check Content
D) Both A & C

4)
A ..... Scenario gives you control over the number of running Vusers and the times at which they run, and lets you test how many Vusers your application can run simultaneously.

A) Manual
B) Goal-oriented
C) Vuser
D) none

5)
Initialization means preparing the Vusers and the load generators for a load test run by running the ....... action in the script.

A) vuser_initiation
B) vuserinit
C) vuser_init
D) init_vuser

6)
Two types of content checks:

A) text check & bitmap check
B) time check & image check
C) text check & image check
D) Content check & image check

7)
Run Time setting Browser Emulation is used by:

A) users using different browsers to see their application’s performance
B) users to set the time to wait before repeating the action
C) users using different network connections such as modem, DSL, and cable
D) None

8)
The ..... tab in the Controller window is the control center from which the
test is managed and monitored.

A) Ready
B) Scenario
C) Load
D) Run

9)
You use the Controller’s online graphs to view performance data collected by the monitors.

A) True
B) False

10)
The Throughout graph shows the amount of data (measured in bytes) that the Vusers receive from the server at any given second.

A) True
B) False

Answers

1) b, 2) b, 3) b, 4) a, 5) c, 6) c, 7) A, 8) D, 9) A, 10) B

LoadRunner Questions - 1

2008-07-20T02:10:00.000-07:00

1)
The LoadRunner component......... create the load by running virtual users.

A) Load Creator
B) Load Generators
C) Load Vuser
D) Both A & B

2)
The ....... provides a single point of access for all of the LoadRunner components.

A) Controller
B) Analysis
C) Vauncher
D) Launcher

3)
A ....... is a file that defines the events that occur during each testing session, based on performance requirements.

A) scenario
B) Rfile
C) Vuser Script
D) Transactions

4)
In the scenario, LoadRunner replaces human users with virtual users or Vusers.

A) True
B) False

5)
A ........ represents end-user business processes that you are interested in measuring.

A) Vuser
B) Scenario
C) transaction
D) Both A & C

6)
The LoadRunner ........ works on a record-andplayback principle.

A) VuGen
B) Vuser
C) Launcher
D) Graphs

7)
You can view the LoadRunner script in .......

A) Tree view
B) Script view
C) Test view
D) Both A & B
E) Both A & C

8)
Think Tank represents the actual time you waited between steps, and can be used to emulate fast and slow user behavior under load.

A) True
B) False

9)
LoadRunner uses ASCI C

A) True
B) False

10)
Identify LoadRunner components—

A) VuGan, Controller, and Analysis
B) VScript, Controller, and Analysis
C) VuGen, Controller, and Analytics
D) VuGen, Controller, and Analysis

Answers

1) B , 2) D , 3) A, 4) A , 5) c , 6) A , 7) D , 8) B , 9) B , 10) D

QTP Questions 22 - Recovery scenarios

2008-05-28T08:52:00.000-07:00

1)
Recovery scenarios activate specific recovery operations when ......... occur.

A) Specific Errors
B) Test Errors
C) Trigger Events
D) QTP Errors

2)
You can also control and activate your recovery scenarios during the run session by inserting .............. into your test.

A) Trigger Events
B) Recovery Events
C) Recovery Statements
D) Catch Statements

3)
If you choose On error in the Activate recovery scenarios box in the Recovery tab of the Test Settings dialog box, the recovery mechanism does not handle triggers that occur in the last step of a test.

A) True
B) False

4)
By default, recovery scenario operations are activated only after a step returns an error.

A) True
B) False

5)
A ....... is a convenient way to organize and store multiple recovery scenarios together.

A) recovery file
B) recovery folder
C) Recovery Log
D) Log File

6)
The Recovery Scenario Manager dialog box enables you to create and edit recovery files, and does not let you create and manage the recovery scenarios stored in those files.

A) True
B) False

7)
Each recovery scenario is represented by an icon that indicates its type.

A) True
B) False

8)
The Recovery Operations screen in Recovery Scenario Wizard enables you to manage the collection of ........ in the recovery scenario.

A) recovery operations
B) recovery Files
C) Trigger events
D) All of Above

9)
If you define a Restart Microsoft Windows recovery operation, it is always inserted as the last recovery operation, and you can change its position in the list.

A) True
B) False

10)
If more than one scenario uses a function with the same name from different function libraries, the recovery process may fail.

A) True
B) False

Answers

1) c, 2) c, 3) a, 4) A, 5) A, 6) b, 7) a, 8) a, 9) b, 10) a

Quality Center Questions 15

2008-05-26T23:15:00.000-07:00

141)
You can define a logo for the project document, and save the image so that it is available for other users in the current project. If you do not select an image, the Document Generator uses the Mercury logo in the project document.

A) True
B) False

142)
While specifying Requirements module data (Generating Project Documents) Microsoft Word is limited to .... header levels in the table of contents.

A) Seven
B) Eight
C) Nine
D) Ten

143)
You use the ...... pages to specify the information from the test plan tree view of the Test Plan module that should appear in the project document.

A) Subject Tree
B) Subject Tests
C) Subject plans
D) Both A & B

144)
You use the ........ pages to specify the information from the Test Lab module that should appear in the project document.

A) Tests Lab, Test Set, Tests, and Run
B) Test Labs, Test Sets, Tests, and Runs
C) Test Lab, Test Gets, Tests, and Runs
D) Test Lab, Test Sets, Tests, and Runs

145)
You can generate a ...... that enables you to quickly see how the document will look, without all the detail included.

A) view project document
B) preview project document
C) pre project document
D) None

146)
You can generate Excel reports that enable you to export Quality Center data to Microsoft Excel and analyze the data from within Excel.

A) True
B) False

147)
You can export Quality Center data to Microsoft Excel. You cannot create a report with parameters.

A) True
B) False

148)
Most of the Excel Reports functionality is unavailable if you belong to a user group that has the necessary permissions.

A) True
B) False

149)
After you have added a report to the Excel Reports tree, you must define which project data you want to include in the report. You define this data by creating .... to extract the data.

A) Test Queries
B) Lotus Queries
C) Excel Macros
D) SQL queries

150)
To view the database type used for your project database, click the... button.

A) Database in use
B) Database Type
C) Get Database
D) Database version

Answers

141) B , 142) C , 143) D, 144) D , 145) B , 146) A , 147) B , 148) B , 149) D , 150) B

QTP Questions 21 - Virtual Object

2008-05-26T02:54:00.000-07:00

1)
Virtual objects enable you to record and run tests on objects that are normally recognized by QuickTest.

A) True
B) False

2)
In the test results, the virtual object is displayed as though it is a standard class object.

A) True
B) False

3)
QuickTest does not support virtual objects for ....... recording.

A) analog
B) low-level
C) normal
D) both A & B
E) both A & C

4)
You can use the Object Spy to view virtual object properties.

A) True
B) False

5)
You cannot insert any type of checkpoint on a virtual object

A) True
B) False

6)
The ............ contains all the virtual object collections defined on your computer.

A) Virtual Objects Manager
B) Virtual Manager
C) Virtual Object Manager
D) Virtual Object Wizard

7)
Extention of virtual object collection files

A) .vcf
B) .vot
C) .vct
D) .vcd

8)
You can remove virtual objects from your test by ....... these objects.

A) disabling recognition of
B) deleting
C) deleting virtual object collection files of
D) All of Above
E) both A & B

9)
When you want QuickTest to recognize virtual objects during recording, ensure that the ....... check box in the General tab of the Options dialog box is cleared.

A) Disable recognition of virtual object Files while recording
B) Disable recognition of virtual object Collection while recording
C) Disable recognition of virtual objects while recording
D) Enable recognition of virtual objects while recording

10)
QuickTest identifies a virtual object according to its ......

A) Properties
B) boundaries
C) Object Spy
D) Edges

Answers

1) B, 2) A, 3) D, 4) B, 5) A, 6) C, 7) b, 8) E, 9) C, 10) B

Quality Center Questions 14

2008-05-25T23:15:00.000-07:00

131)

Quality Center enables you to generate graphs from the .........

A) Requirements module
B) Test Plan module
C) Test Lab module
D) Defects module
E) Both A & C
F) All of Above

132)
Requirements -Summary Graph

A) Shows how many requirements accumulated in a Quality Center project at specific points during a period of time.
B) Shows the history of changes to specific requirement fields in a Quality Center project
C) Shows how many requirements are currently in a Quality Center project.
D) Shows how many tests are currently in a Quality Center project.

133)
By default, the graph appears as a

A) pie chart,
B) bar chart
C) Pareto chart
D) Both A & B

134)
You can also use the Graph Wizard to guide you through the graph creation process.

A) True
B) False

135)
You can determine how information appears in the graph using the .....

A) graph toolbar.
B) graph settings
C) graph menu
D) Both A & C

136)
..... graphs enable you to create and display a dynamic graphical representation of data related to test plans and test sets.

A) Live Value
B) Live Analysis
C) Live Analytics
D) Both A & C

137)
You use Live Analysis graphs to view data that relates to a .... folder.

A) test subject
B) test set
C) test category
D) Both A & B

138)
The Live Analysis graphs that you create are unique for your user login.

A) True
B) False

139)
The Quality Center Document Generator enables you to create a Microsoft Word document containing a project’s requirements, planning, test list, test set folders, and defect tracking data.

A) True
B) False

140)
The Document Generator enables you to create a hard copy of the data contained in a Quality Center project.

A) True
B) False

Answers

131) F , 132) C , 133) B, 134) A , 135) A , 136) B , 137) D , 138) A , 139) A , 140) A

QTP Questions 20 - Regular Expressions

2008-04-11T18:26:00.000-07:00

1)
Regular expressions enable QuickTest to identify objects and text strings with undependable values.

A) True
B) False

2)
You can use regular expressions only for values of type string and number.

A) True
B) False

3)
If you expect the value of a property to change in an unpredictable way during each run session, you can use regular expressions

A) True
B) False

4)
All ........ are automatically treated as regular expressions.

A) programmatic description
B) Window
C) WinObject
D) Collection

5)
If a backslash character is used before a character that has no special meaning, the backslash is ignored.

A) True
B) False

6)
You can use regular expressions in the Find what and Replace with strings to enhance your search.

A) True
B) False

7)
Regular Expressions can also be used with XML checkpoints.

A) True
B) False

8)
What is the Regular Expression Matching Zero or More Specific Characters

A) x
B) #
C) *
D) &

Answers

1) A, 2) B, 3) B, 4) A, 5) A, 6) A, 7) A, 8) c

QTP Questions 19 - QTP Parameterization

2008-04-10T10:19:00.000-07:00

1)
You can parameterize values ..... in your test.

A) in Steps
B) in Checkpoints
C) of Action Parameters
D) Both A & B
E) All of above

2)
You can parameterize values in steps and checkpoints while ...... your test.

A) recording
B) editing
C) Both A & B

3)
There are four types of parameters: Test/Action, Random number, Environment Variable, Regular Expression.

A) True
B) False

4)
While using Test and Action Input Parameters,you can enter the parameter name in the Expert View using the Parameter utility object, in the format: ............ for the current action.

A) Parameter("ParameterName")
B) ParameterName("Parameter")
C) Parameter("Parameter-Name")
D) Parameter("Parameter_Name")

5)
..... parameters are available only for top-level actions.

A) Action
B) Environment Variable
C) Test
D) None

6)
...... parameters are available for subsequent steps and for nested actions. They are defined in the action containing the steps or in the action that calls the nested action.

A) Action
B) Environment Variable
C) Test
D) Parent action

7)
When specifying the name for data table parameter, the first character of the parameter name must be a ......

A) letter
B) underscore
C) number
D) both A & b

8)
By outputting values to the global Data Table sheet from one action and using them as input parameters in another action, you can easily pass values from one action to another.

A) True
B) False

9)
....... parameters are especially useful for localization testing, when you want to test an application where the user interface strings change, depending on the selected language.

A) Action
B) Environment
C) Test
D) Parent action

10)
You can also store environment variable files in Quality Center.

A) True
B) False

11)
....... built-in environment variable that tells version of the OS on which you are working.

A) OS
B) OS_Ver
C) OSVER
D) OSVersion

12)
Random number parameters are appropriate for non-numeric
values, such as text or hypertext links.

A) True
B) False

Answers

1) e, 2) c, 3) b, 4) a, 5) c, 6) D, 7) d, 8) A, 9) b, 10) a, 11) d, 12) b

QTP Questions 18 - Function Library

2008-04-09T09:46:00.000-07:00

1)
Using QuickTest, you can define and store your user-defined functions in a .....

A) function library
B) directly in an action within a test.
C) both A & B
D) None

2)
Default file extention of function library is

A) .flf
B) .qtfl
C) .qfl
D) .tfl

3)
When you store a function in a test action, it can be called from any other action or test.

A) True
B) False

4)
You cannot define private functions and store them in a function library.

A) True
B) False

5)
You can drag and drop a function (or part of it) from one document to another.

A) True
B) False

6)
You can add steps to your function library manually or using the Step Generator.

A) Manually
B) using Step Generator
C) Both A & B
D) None

7)
In function libraries, IntelliSense does not enable you to view test object names or collections because function libraries are not connected to object repositories.

A) True
B) False

8)
Function Libraries can be edited during the debug session.

A) True
B) False

9)
To close all open function libraries:

A) Choose File > Close All Function Libraries,
B) Window > Close All Function Libraries.
C) Widow > Close All
D) Both A & B

10)
Any text file written in standard VBScript syntax can be used as a function library.

A) True
B) False

11)
If you create a user-defined function manually and do not define the scope as Public or Private, it will be treated as a ..... function, by default.

A) Private
B) Public
C) Both A & B
D) None

12)
If you choose not to register your function at this time, you can manually register it later by adding a RegisterUserFunc statement after your function

A) RegisterUserFunction
B) RegisterUserFunc
C) RegUserFunc
D) Both A & B

QTP Questions 17 - QTP Expert View

2008-04-08T01:45:00.000-07:00

1) You can use the Expert View tab to view a text-based version of your test.

A) True
B) False

2) Expert View contains each step as a VBScript line. In object-based steps, the VBScript line defines the ........ hierarchy.

A) Action
B) Object
C) Test
D) Step

3) If you focus on a specific step in the Keyword View and switch to the Expert View, the cursor is located in that ..... line of the test.

A) Next
B) Previous
C) Last
D) Corresponding

4) For each object and method in an Expert View statement, a corresponding row exists in the Keyword View.

A) True
B) False

5) When you switch from the Expert View to the Keyword View, QuickTest automatically checks for syntax errors in your script, and shows them in the Information pane.

A) True
B) False

6) In the Expert View, the ....... is always visible and the Expert View always displays the script for the selected action.

A) Action List
B) Expert List
C) Check List
D) View List

7) You can insert a checkpoint or output value statement in the Expert View manually.

A) True
B) False

8) You can copy a Checkpoint or Output statement from the Expert View to another test.

A) True
B) False

9) You can also manually enter standard VBScript statements, as well as statements using QuickTest test objects and methods, in the Expert View.

A) True
B) False

10) You cannot print the test displayed in the Expert View or a function library.

A) True
B) False

11) When you type in the Expert View or a function library, .......... enables you to select the test object, method, property, or collection for your statement from a drop-down list and view the relevant syntax.

A) Object Property dialog box
B) Web edit Property dialog box
C) Intellisense
D) dropdown list

QTP Questions 16 - Descriptive Programming in QTP

2008-04-07T01:45:00.000-07:00

1) Programmatic description can be very useful if you want to perform an operation on an object that is stored in the object repository.

A) True
B) False

2) There are two types of programmatic descriptions:

A) Static & Dynamic
B) Statement & Dynamic
C) Step & Dynamic
D) Standard & Dynamic

3) You can also use programmatic descriptions to perform the same operation on several objects with certain identical properties, or to perform an operation on an object whose properties match a description that you determine dynamically during the run session.

A) True
B) False

4) QuickTest evaluates all property values in programmatic descriptions as regular expressions

A) True
B) False

5) From the below 4 statements which one is invalid:

A) Browser("Title:=Mercury Tours").Page("Title:=Mercury Tours").WebEdit("Name:=Author", "Index:=3").Set "Amit Kumar"
B) Browser("Index").Page(Desc1).Link(docu3)
C) Browser("Mercury Tours").Page("Title:=Mercury Tours").WebEdit("Name:=Author", "Index:=3").Set "Amit Kumar"
D) Browser("Title:=Mercury Tours").Page("Title:=Mercury Tours").WebEdit("Author").Set "Amit Kumar"

6) When using programmatic descriptions from a specific point within a test object hierarchy, you must continue to use programmatic descriptions from that point onward within the same statement.

A) True
B) False

7) You can run any application from a specified location using a ..... statement.

A) Start.Application
B) System.UtilRun
C) SystemUtil.Run
D) SystemUtii.RUn

8) When creating a programmatic description for an ActiveX test object and the relevant run-time object is windowless (has no window handle associated with it), you must add the ........ property to the description and set its value to True.

A) Window Handle
B) WindowLess
C) Winless
D) None

9) You can compare the run-time value of a specified object property with the expected value of that property using either programmatic descriptions or user-defined functions.

A) True
B) False

10) When you specify an application to open using the Record and Run Settings dialog box, QuickTest adds a SystemUtil.Run statement to your test.

A) True
B) False

QTP Questions 15 - Data Table

2008-04-06T05:23:00.000-07:00

166) You can edit information in the Data Table by typing directly into the table cells.

A) True
B) False

167) Each row in the table represents the set of values that QuickTest submits for the ......... arguments during a single iteration of the test or action.

A) parameterized
B) Non-parameterized
C) distributed
D) None of above

168) For every action called in your test, QuickTest creates a corresponding ........ in the Data Table so that you can enter Data Table parameters that are specific to that action only.

A) action sheet
B) Excel sheet
C) Both A & B
D) None

169) When you create a test, it includes ..... action.

A) Single
B) unlimited
C) Three
D) Multiple

170) There are three kinds of actions:

A) non-reuse action, reuse action, external action
B) Call to internal action, Call to reusable action, external action
C) non-reusable action, reusable action, external action
D) Call to non-reusable action, reusable action, external action

171) By default, new actions are

A) Short
B) External
C) reusable
D) non-reusable

172) You can display or hide the Action toolbar in the Keyword View by choosing View > Toolbars > Action.

A) View > Toolbars > Action
B) View > Toolbars > Actions
C) View > Toolbar > Action
D) Views > Toolbars > Action

173) The ...... enables you to view either the entire test flow (the calls to the actions in the test) or you can view the steps for a selected reusable or external action.

A) Action Flow
B) Action file
C) Action List
D) Action Repository

174) In the ......., the Action List is always visible and the Expert View always displays the script for the selected action.

A) Keyword View
B) Expert View
C) Action Flow
D) Action View

175) ....... Method - Imports a sheet of a specified file to a specified sheet in the run-time Data Table.

A) SheetImport
B) ImportSheet
C) ImportDataTable
D) ImportTable

176) The column headings in the sheet you import must match the Data Table parameter names in the action for which the sheet is being imported. Otherwise, your test or component may fail.

A) True
B) False

177) The sheet you import automatically takes the name of the sheet it replaces.

A) True
B) False

178) The use of complex and/or nested formulas in the Data Table is supported.

A) True
B) False

179) The data your test uses is stored in the ....... Data Table, which is displayed in the Data Table pane at the bottom of the screen while you insert and edit steps.

A) design-time
B) Run-time
C) Current
D) None

180) During the run session, QuickTest creates a ....... Data Table—a live version of the Data Table associated with your test.

A) True
B) False

181) If it is important for you to save the resulting data from the run-time Data Table, you can insert a ..........statement to the end of your test to export the run-time Data Table to a file.

A) Export.Datatable
B) DataTable_Export
C) DataTable.Export
D) Both A & B

182) When you parameterize a step in a test using the Data Table, you must decide whether you want to make it a global Data Table parameter or an action Data Table parameter.

A) True
B) False

183) After running a parameterized test, you can view the actual values taken from the Data Table in the Test Results Run-Time Data Table.

A) True
B) False

184) ...... Property - Returns the design-time Data Table, which enables you to modify the data that is used for the Data Table parameters in your test or business component.

A) DataTable
B) DesignTable
C) Design_Table
D) None

185) The Data Table assists you in parameterizing your test.

A) True
B) False

Answers

166) a, 167) a, 168) c, 169) b, 170) c, 171) b, 172) a, 173) d, 174) a, 175) b, 176) a, 177) a, 178) b, 179) a, 180) a, 181) c, 182) a, 183) a, 184) a, 185) a

QTP Questions 14 - Checkpoints

2008-03-06T05:23:00.000-08:00

154)
The ........ checks a variety of objects such as buttons, radio buttons, combo boxes, lists, and so forth.

A) Image checkpoint
B) standard checkpoint
C) Bitmap checkpoint
D) Accessibility checkpoint

155)
You create an image checkpoint by inserting a ........ on an image object.

A) Image checkpoint
B) standard checkpoint
C) Bitmap checkpoint
D) Accessibility checkpoint

156)
......... are also supported for some list view objects, such as WinListView and VbListView, as well as other list view objects in external add-in environments.

A) Table checkpoints
B) standard checkpoints
C) Accessibility checkpoints
D) XML checkpoints

157)
.......identifies areas of your Web site that may not conform to the World Wide Web Consortium (W3C) Web Content Accessibility Guidelines.

A) Accessibility Checkpoint
B) standard checkpoints
C) Database checkpoints
D) Accessible Checkpoint

158)
........ Specifies the time interval (in seconds) during which QuickTest attempts to perform the checkpoint successfully.

A) Check timeout
B) Checkpoint interval timeout
C) Checkpoint timeout
D) Quicktest timeout

159)
........... Specifies when to perform the checkpoint in the test.

A) Insert statement.
B) Check statement.
C) timeout statement.
D) checkpoint statement.

160)
You can view the results of the checkpoint in the ........

A) Test Results window
B) Checkpoint window
C) Information Pane
D) Checklist window

161)
By default, the bottom right part of the Test Results window displays information on the selected checkpoint only if it has the status Failed.

A) True
B) False

162)
You can also use the ......... to check specific property values.

A) CheckProperty method
B) CheckItemProperty method
C) ItemProperty method
D) Property method

163)
If you want to retrieve the return value of a checkpoint (a boolean value that indicates whether the checkpoint passed or failed), you must add ......... the checkpoint argument in the statement in the Expert View.

A) parentheses around
B) Properties with
C) Arguments with
D) Values alongwith

164)
You can use a formula in a checkpoint to confirm that an object created on-the-fly (dynamically generated) or another variable object in your Web page or application contains the value it should for a given context.

A) True
B) False

165)
You cannot modify the settings of existing checkpoints.

A) True
B) False

Answers

154) b, 155) b, 156) a, 157) a, 158) c, 159) a, 160) a, 161) a, 162) a, 163) a, 164) a, 165) b

QTP Questions 13 - Synchronization

2008-03-01T05:02:00.000-08:00

144)
If you do not want QuickTest to perform a step or checkpoint until an object in your application achieves a certain status, you should insert a .......... point to instruct QuickTest to pause the test until the object property achieves the value you specify

A) Synchronization
B) Check
C) Smart Identification
D) none of above

145)
Where do we Specify the Maximum Time to Wait for a Web Page to Load

A) File->Settings, Web Tab.
B) Tools->Options, Web Tab.
C) Resources->Settings, Web Tab
D) None of above

146)
You can insert ........ statements that instruct QuickTest to wait until an object exists

A) Exist
B) Wait
C) Both A & B
D) None

147)
...... Method Waits for the browser to complete the current navigation.

A) Exist
B) Wait
C) WaitProperty
D) Sync

148)
Sub Sync_Example()
Browser("Mercury Tours").Page("Mercury Tours").Sync
End Sub

The above example uses the Sync method to wait for the Mercury Tours page to synchronize before performing the next operation.

A) True
B) False

149)
.....Property- The period of time QuickTest waits before checking the emulator status (in milliseconds).

A) SyncTime
B) Sync.Time
C) TimeSync
D) Time.Sync

150)
....... Property- Indicates whether QuickTest beeps after performing each Sync function during a run session.

A) BeepAfterSync
B) BeepOnSync
C) BeepSync
D) Beep.Sync

151)
Unlike the Exist method, the ....... method enables you to synchronize the test run based on a specific object property.

A) WaitProperty
B) Wait
C) Sync
D) Exit

152)
...... Statement - Initiates a pause during a run session.

A) WaitProperty
B) Wait
C) Sync
D) Exit

153)
........... Property - The maximum time (in milliseconds) that QuickTest waits for a Web page to load before running a step.

A) BrowserTimeout
B) Browser_Navigation_Timeout
C) BrowserNavigationTimeout
D) Browser_Timeout

Answers

144) a, 145) a, 146) c, 147) d, 148) a, 149) a, 150) b, 151) a, 152) b, 153) c

QTP Questions 12 - Object Repository

2008-02-26T08:55:00.000-08:00

122) You can import and export object repositories from and to .... files.

A) XML
B) MTS
C) TSR
D) XLS

123) In general, the ....... object repository is easiest to use when you are creating simple record and run tests.

A) Shared
B) Local
C) Both
D) None

124) The Object Repository automation object model enables you to manipulate QuickTest ....... object repositories and their contents from outside of QuickTest.

A) Shared
B) Local
C) Both
D) None

125) Before using the Object Repository automation object model to manipulate shared object repository stored in Quality Center, you must download the shared object repository and save it to the file system.

A) True
B) False

126) SetTOProperty changes the property values used to identify an object during the test run. It also effects the values saved in the Object Repository for the object.

A) True
B) False

127) After creating or editing an object repository XML file, it is recommended to use the QuickTest ..........functionality to verify that your file conforms to the QuickTest object repository schema.

A) Schema Verification
B) Schema Validation
C) XML Validation
D) XML Verification

128) To display the Comment in the Object Repository dialog box, you must use the attribute name .........

A) miccommentproperty
B) commentproperty
C) mic_comment_property
D) None of above

129) ObjectRepositoryUtil Object Enables you to manipulate .....object repository files from outside of QuickTest Professional.

A) Shared
B) Local
C) Both
D) None

130) You can use the Object Repository Merge Tool to merge objects from ......

A) two shared object repositories into a single shared object repository.
B) the local object repository of one or more actions or components into a shared object repository.
C) Both A & B
D) None

131) GetTOProperty method returns the value of a specified property for a test object from the Object Repository.

A) True
B) False

132) The new Object Repository Comparison Tool is accessible from the Object Repository Manager. You can use this tool to identify the differences between objects in ........

A) two specified shared object repository files.
B) a Shared and a Local object repository files.
C) either Shared or Local object repository files.
D) two specified Local object repository files.

133) You can use the objects and methods of the QuickTest .................... to write scripts that automatically manipulate object repositories, instead of performing these operations manually using the Object Repository Manager.

A) Automation object model
B) Object Repository automation object model
C) Object Repository model
D) Object Repository Script Object model

134) You must convert object repository files from QuickTest Professional 8.2.1 or earlier to the current format before you can use them in QuickTest Professional 9.0 or later. Which method lets you do so.

A) Conversion method
B) Converge method
C) Convert method
D) None

135) You open the Object Repository window for a specific component by choosing ..........

A) Resources > Object Repository
B) Tools > Object Repository
C) File > Object Repository
D) Help > Object Repository

136) In QTP 9 or above, Test objects can be stored in two types of object repositories—........

A) a shared object repository and a Per-Action object repository.
B) a shared object repository and a local object repository.
C) a shared object repository and a Action object repository.
D) Both A & C

137) The Object Repository Manager enables you to open ...... shared object repositories and modify them as needed

A) multiple
B) three
C) two
D) Seven

138) ........ Method Loads the specified object repository.

A) Overload
B) Load
C) Both A & B
D) None

139) An object repository that is currently open by another user is locked, is it possible to merge a locked object repository.

A) Yes
B) No

140) You can manage the shared object repository associations of a selected test using the ............

A) Associate Repositories dialog box
B) Object Repositories dialog box
C) Associate Repositories Manager dialog box
D) Object Repositories Manager dialog box

141) All changes you make to an object repository are automatically updated in all components open on the same computer that use the object repository as soon as you make the change—even if you have not yet saved the object repository with your changes.

A) True
B) False

142) If you want to modify an object stored in a shared object repository, you can modify it.......

A) using the Object Repository Manager
B) you can modify it locally using the Object Repository window.
C) Both A & B
D) None of above

143) ................ Returns an ObjectRepositories collection representing all object repository files associated with the action.

A) Object Property
B) Automation Object Model
C) ObjectRepositories Property
D) OR Property

Answers

122) a, 123) b, 124) a, 125) a, 126) b, 127) b, 128) a, 129) c, 130) c, 131) a, 132) a, 133) b, 134) c, 135) a, 136) b, 137) a, 138) b , 139) a, 140) a, 141) a, 142) c, 143) c.

QTP Questions 11 - Actions

2008-02-25T08:53:00.000-08:00

101) A test comprises calls to actions. When you create a new test, it contains a call to a ...... action.

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Multiple

102) When you open a test, you can choose to view ......

A) the test flow (calls to actions)
B) you can view and edit the individual actions stored with your test.
C) Both A & B
D) None

103) For every action called in your test, QuickTest creates a corresponding ........ in the Data Table so that you can enter Data Table parameters that are specific to that action only.

A) action sheet
B) Excel sheet
C) Both A & B
D) None

104) When you create a test, it includes ..... action.

A) Single
B) unlimited
C) Three
D) Multiple

105) There are three kinds of actions:

106) By default, new actions are

A) Short
B) External
C) reusable
D) non-reusable

107) You can display or hide the Action toolbar in the Keyword View by choosing ........

A) View > Toolbars > Action
B) View > Toolbars > Actions
C) View > Toolbar > Action
D) Views > Toolbars > Action

108) The ...... enables you to view either the entire test flow (the calls to the actions in the test) or you can view the steps for a selected reusable or external action.

A) Action Flow
B) Action file
C) Action List
D) Action Repository

109) In the ......., the Action List is always visible and the Expert View always displays the script for the selected action.

A) Keyword View
B) Expert View
C) Action Flow
D) Action View

110) If the action is called more than once within the test flow or if the action is called by a reusable action, the Reusable action option is ......

A) read-only
B) write-only
C) both read and write
D) read-write-executable.

111) You cannot expand ...... actions from the test flow view.

A) reusable
B) non-reusable
C) both A & B
D) None

112) You can associate shared object repositories with ...... actions simultaneously, using the Associate Repositories dialog box

A) seven
B) Two
C) Three
D) Multiple

113) You can associate ....... object repositories with an action, and the same object repository can be associated with different actions as needed

A) Nine
B) Twenty one
C) as many as you need
D) Twelve

114) Sometimes you may want to call an action from within an action. This is called .......

A) Reusability
B) Nesting
C) Sharing
D) None

115) If a reusable action is called more than once in a test and you split the action into two independent actions, each call to the action within the test will be followed by a call to the new (reusable) action. If a reusable action is called from another test, however, ...... it may cause the calling test to fail.

A) Nesting
B) Splitting
C) Reusing
D) Both A & C

116) You must use the ...... Action option in QuickTest if you want to save an action under another name.

A) Resave
B) Rename
C) Reuse
D) Split

117) When you remove an external action, you remove all calls and the action from the action list. The original action is also affected.

A) True
B) False

18) You can also press ...... to open the Rename Action dialog box

A) Shift + F2
B) Shift + F3
C) Shift + F4
D) Shift + F5

119) If you want to include one or more statements in every new action in your test, you can create an ....

A) reusable action
B) split action
C) Function
D) action template

120) With QuickTest Professional 9.0, a maximum of .......... Actions can be placed into a script

A) 110
B) 256
C) 120
D) 512

121) Only the file name ...... is recognized as an action template

A) ActionTemplate.mst
B) Action_Template.mst
C) Action-Template.mst
D) ActionTemplates.mst

Answers

101) a, 102) c, 103) a, 104) a, 105) c, 106) d, 107) a, 108) c, 109) b, 110) a, 111) a, 112) d, 113) c, 114) b, 115) b, 116) b, 117) b, 118) a, 119) d, 120) c, 121) a

QTP Questions 10

2008-02-24T05:36:00.001-08:00

91) An ........ assigns a numerical value to a test object that indicates its order or location relative to other objects with an otherwise identical description (objects that have the same values for all properties)

A) Index identifier.
B) ordinal identifier.
C) SMART ID identifier.
D) original identifier.

92) You can add an object to the local object repository only if that object does not already exist in a shared object repository that is associated with the action. If an object already exists in an associated shared object repository, you can add it to the local object repository using the ........ option.

A) Copy from Shared Repository
B) Copy from Shared Object Repository
C) Copy to Local
D) Copy to Local repository

93) You can copy, paste, and move objects in the local object repository using the Object Repository window, and copy, paste, and move objects both within a shared object repository and between shared object repositories using the Object Repository Manager. But you cannot copy objects from a shared object repository to the local object repository to modify them locally

A) True
B) False

94) At the time of copying, pasting and moving objects, you cannot move an object to any of its descendants.

A) True
B) False

95) When you remove a step from your test, its corresponding object is also removed from the object repository

A) True
B) False

96) You can use the Find and Replace dialog box to replace property or object names.

A) True
B) False

97) The Object Repository window is ...... during record and run sessions

A) read-only
B) read-write only
C) read-write and enable
D) None of above

98) In the Associated Repositories tab of the Action Properties dialog box, the ......object repository is always listed first and cannot be moved down the priority list or deleted.

A) local
B) shared
C) Both
D) None

99) In the Associated Repositories tab of the Action Properties dialog box, although we can order the object repositories according to our choice except the fact that Shared Repository remains the first one and cannot be removed.

A) True
B) False

100) If your object repositories are stored in the file system and you want other users or Mercury products to be able to run this action on other computers, you should set the file path as a

A) Absolute path
B) relative path
C) both
D) None of above

Answers

91) B, 92) C, 93) B, 94) A, 95) B, 96) B, 97) A, 98) A, 99) B, 100) B

QTP Questions 9

2008-02-23T05:36:00.000-08:00

81) In the Object Repository window:.

A) Local objects are editable (black)
B) Shared objects are in read-only format (gray)
C) Local objects are in read-only format (gray)
D) Shared objects are editable (black)

82) Mark true statement(s):.

A) You can delete objects from a shared object repository using the Object Repository window.
B) You can delete objects from the local object repository using the Object Repository Manager
C) You can delete objects from the local object repository using the Object Repository window
D) You can delete objects from a shared object repository using the Object Repository Manager

83) You can modify an object stored in a shared object repository.

A) using the Object Repository Manager
B) using the Object Repository window
C) you can copy it to the local object repository and then modify its properties
D) you cannot modify properties of objects stored in Shared object repository

84) If an object is contained in both local and shared repositories then, during a run session.

A) QuickTest will use the object in the local object repository
B) QuickTest will use the object in the Shared object repository
C) There will be a conflict
D) QuickTest will use Descriptive Programming

85) When you copy an object to the local object repository

A) its parent objects are also copied to the local object repository
B) its parent objects are not copied to the local object repository
C) You have to manually copy its parent objects are also copied to the local object repository
D) You have to manually drag and drop its parent objects

86) For tests, you can also view test object properties and property values for objects in the Active Screen, regardless of whether the objects are
stored in the object repository.

A) True
B) False

87) Object Properties window differs for objects stored in Shared and Local object repository.

A) True
B) False

88) You can rename objects in the shared object repository using the Object Repository Manager

A) True
B) False, you cannot rename objects in shared object repository

89) When you modify the name of an object in the local object repository, the name is automatically updated in ....... for all occurrences of the object..

A) in the Keyword View
B) in the Expert View
C) Both Keyword and Expert View
D) Changing name of an object doest not effect keyword or expert view

90) When you modify the name of an object in a shared repository, the name is automatically updated in all tests open on the same computer that use the object repository as soon as you make the change, even if you have not yet saved the object repository with your changes.

A) True
B) False

Answers

81) A,B, 82) C,D, 83) A,C, 84) A, 85) A, 86) A, 87) A, 88) A, 89) C, 90) A

QTP Questions 8

2008-02-22T05:36:00.000-08:00

71) QuickTest processes a comments when it runs a test.

A) True
B) False

72) Press ..... to add a new step below the currently selected step.

A) F8
B) Shift + A
C) F0
D) Shift + A + Q

73) While working with the Keyword View, you can ...... steps to move them to a different location in a test or in an action

A) Copy and Paste
B) Cut and Paste
C) Drag and drop
D) Both A) and C)

74) You can specify the order in which the columns are displayed in the Keyword view.

A) True
B) False

75) You can view ....... while working with keyword view.

A) object properties
B) action properties
C) action call properties
D) checkpoint properties
E) Output value properties
F) None of the above
G) All of above

76) You cannot manage some aspects of a local object repository using the QuickTest Object Repository automation object model..

A) True
B) False

77) For each action, you can use a combination of objects from your local and shared object repositories.

A) True
B) False

78) QuickTest adds all new objects to the local object repository even if one or more shared object repositories are already associated with the action assuming that an object with the same description does not already exist in one of the associated shared object repositories..

A) True
B) False

79) If a child object is added to a local object repository, and its parents are in a shared object repository, then you have to manually drag and drop its parent objects from shared object repository to local object repository.

A) True
B) False

80) The ....... is not accessible as a separate file

A) local object repository
B) shared object repository
C) Both
D) None

Answers

71) B, 72) A, 73) D, 74) A, 75) G, 76) B, 77) A, 78) A, 79) B, 80) A

QTP Questions 7

2008-02-21T04:01:00.000-08:00

61) You can use the Keyword View to add a step ..........in your test.

A) at the end
B) below the currently selected step
C) at the beginning
D) at anypoint

62) The Documentation cell is .............

A) Read-only
B) Write-only
C) Read and Write
D) Read, write & execute

63) An Item column can be any of the following:

A) A test object
B) A statement like Dim
C) A step generated by step generator
D) All of above

64) The Operation cell in the keyword view specifies the operation to be performed on the item listed in the ........... column.

A) Operation
B) Documentation
C) Item
D) Value

65) Even if the Item column in the Keyword View is displayed to the right of the Operation column, you must still first select an item to view the list of available operations in the Operation column.

A) True
B) False

66) The Value cell in the keyword view can contain........ value

A) Constant
B) Parameter
C) Both A) & B)
D) None of these

67)The ............... enables you to encode your passwords and place secure values into the Data Table.

A) Password Encoder
B) Password Decoder
C) Password Encode
D) Password Decode

68) You can also encrypt strings in Data Table cells using the ......... option in the Data Table menu.

A) Decrypt
B) Encrypt
C) Encrypt Code
D) Decrypt Code

69) In addition to adding standard statement steps to your test using the Keyword View, you can also insert

A) Checkpoint step
B) Output value step
C) Comment step
D) All of above

70) The correct syntax of the conditiona statement starting with Do is.....

A) Do...While
B) Do...Until
C) Do...Next
D) Both A) and B)

Answers

61) D, 62) A, 63) D, 64) C, 65) A, 66) C, 67) A, 68) B, 69) D, 70) D

QTP Questions 6

2008-02-20T03:15:00.000-08:00

51) Using the Object Spy, you can view

A) the run-time or test object properties and methods of any object in an open application.
B) the run-time or test object properties of any object in an open application.
C) the test object properties and methods of any object in an open application.
D) the run-time object properties and methods of any object in an open application.

52) There are .........object type filters in Object spy dialog box.

A) Two
B)Three
C) Four
D) Five

53) In the Object Spy window, in the Properties Tab

A) Copying of Properties and its values is possible with CTRL+C
B) Copying of Properties and its values is possible by right clicking on it and choosing copy.
C) Copying of Properties and its values is possible with both A) and B) methods
D) Copying of Properties and its values is possible is not possible

54) In the Object Spy window, in the methods Tab

A) Copying of Methods is possible with CTRL+C
B) Copying of Methods is possible by right clicking on it and choosing copy.
C) Copying of Methods is possible with both A) and B) methods
D) Copying of Methods is possible is not possible

55) Object Spy dialog box

A) Can be resized
B) Cannot be resized

56) .............. are the highest level of the test hierarchy in the
Keyword view.

A) Tests
B) Steps
C) Call to Actions
D) Actions

57) You can copy and paste or drag and drop actions to move them to a different location within a test

A) True
B) False

58) You can print the contents of the Keyword View to your Windows default printer (and even preview the contents prior to printing).

A) True
B) False

59) In the Keyword View, you can also view properties for items such as checkpoints.

A) True
B) False

60) In the step Browser > Page > Edit > Set "Sachin", identify container object(s)

A) Browser
B) Edit
C) Page
D) Both Browser & Page

Answers

51) A, 52) A, 53) A, 54) A, 55) A, 56) D, 57) A, 58) A, 59) A, 60) D

QTP Questions 5

2008-02-19T03:01:00.000-08:00

41) Object Spy can be found in ........menu.

A) Tool
B) Tools
C) Task
D) Tasks

42) ............ displays the open documents side-by-side.

A) Tile Vertically
B) Tile Horizontally
C) Cascade
D) Tile Cascade

43) For opening the QuickTest Professional Help we can use.......

A) F3
B) F5
C) F1
D) F2

44) If QTP cannot find any object that matches the description, or if it finds more than one object that matches, QuickTest may use the............mechanism to identify the object.

A) Ordinal Identifier
B) Index Identifier
C) Smart Identification
D) Assistive Identification

45) You can configure the ........, ............ and ............
properties that QuickTest uses to record descriptions of the objects in your application

A) mandatory, assistive, and ordinal identifier
B) mandatory, required, and ordinal identifier
C) smart, assistive, and ordinal identifier
D) Index, assistive, and ordinal identifier

46) The .......... property set for each test object is created and maintained by QuickTest.

A) Run-Time Object
B) Test Object
C) Smart Identification Object
D) Assistive Object

47)You can access and perform ......... methods using the Object property.

A) Run-Time Object
B) Test Object
C) Smart Identification Object
D) Assistive Object

48) You can view or modify the test object property values that are stored with your test in the .........

A) Information Pane
B) Data Table
C) Information Pane & Data Table Both
D) Object Properties & Object Repository dialog box.

49) You can retrieve or modify property values of the test object during the run session by adding ..........statements in the Keyword View or Expert View.

A) GetROProperty & SetROProperty
B) GetTOProperty & SetTOProperty
C) GetTOProperty & SetROProperty
D) GetROProperty & SetTOProperty

50) If the available test object methods or properties for an object do not provide the functionality you need, you can access ..............of any run-time object using the Object property.

A) The internal methods and properties
B) The mandatory methods and properties
C) The selective methods and properties
D) The assistive methods and properties

Answers

41) B, 42) A, 43) C, 44) C, 45) A, 46) B, 47) A, 48) D, 49) B, 50) A

QTP Questions 4

2008-02-18T23:01:00.000-08:00

31) You can manage the test actions and the test or function library steps using the ... menu commands

A) File
B) Edit
C) Automation
D) Tools

32) To expand all the steps in the keyword view which option you would use from the View menu.

A) Expand
B) Expand All
C) Expand Items
D) Expand Rows

33) What is the shortcut key to open a Step Generator.

A) F2
B) F5
C) F6
D) F7

34) Function Definition Generator in found in which menu option.

A) File
B) Tools
C) Insert
D) View

35) The shortcut keys for Record, Stop and Run respectively are

A) F3, F4, F5
B) F4, F3, F5
C) F4, F5, F3
D) F3, F5, F4

36) What is the shortcut key for opening an Object Repository.

A) Alt+R
B) Shift+R
C) Ctrl+R
D) Shift+O+R

37) Shortcut key to Insert/Remove a breakpoint is

A) F9
B) F8
C) Ctrl+b
D) Shift+b

38) .........runs only the current line of the script. If the current line calls a method, the method is displayed in the view but is not performed.

A) Step Over
B) Step Out
C) Step Into
D) Step Till

39) .........runs only the current line of the script. When the current line calls a method, the method is performed in its entirety, but is not displayed in the view.

A) Step Over
B) Step Out
C) Step Into
D) Step Till

40) What is the shortcut key to Clear all Breakpoints

A) Ctrl+Shift+F9
B) Shift+Ctrl+F9
C) Alt+Shift+F9
D) Alt+Ctrl+F9

Answers

31) B, 32) B, 33) D, 34) C, 35) A, 36) C, 37) A, 38) C, 39) A, 40) A

QTP Questions 3

2008-02-17T22:57:00.000-08:00

21) Panes in QTP can have one of the following states—docked or floating.

A) True
B) False

22) Which of the following statement is True:

A) QuickTest enables you to open and work on one test at a time
B) QuickTest enables you to open and work on two tests at a time
C) QuickTest enables you to open and work on predefined number of tests at a time
D) QuickTest enables you to open and work on nine test at a time

23) Which of the following statement is True:

A) You can open and work on two function libraries simultaneously
B) You can open and work on multiple function libraries simultaneously
C) You can open and work on nine function libraries simultaneously
D) You can open and work on one function library at a time

24) You can open any function library, regardless of whether it is associated with the currently open test.

A) True
B) False

25) You can work with multiple documents (test, component, or application area, function libraries) using the...... dialog box

A) Panes
B) Display
C) Show
D) Windows

26) QuickTest has ..... built-in toolbars.

A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 8

27) The ......... toolbar contains buttons for recording and running your test.

A) Standard
B) Tools
C) Automation
D) Edit

28) Shortcut Key for opening a new Function Library is:

A) Shift+Alt+N
B) Ctrl+Alt+N
C) Shift+N
D) CRTL+N

29) Shortcut Key for Closing all open Function Libraries in one go.

A) Ctrl+Alt+C
B) Shift+A+C
B)Shift+N
D) None of these

30) shortcut Key for Commenting out the current row, or selected rows

A) Shift+M
B) Ctrl+C
C) Ctrl+M
D) Shift+C

Answers

21) A, 22) A, 23) B, 24) A, 25) D, 26) D, 27) C, 28) A, 29) D, 30) C

QTP Questions 2

2008-02-16T04:51:00.000-08:00

11) The Information pane provides a list of............. in the test:

A) Semantic errors
B) Syntax errors
C) Common errors
D) Logic errors

12) When we switch from Expert view to the Keyword view, QTP automatically checks for syntax errors in the test and shows them in the information pane.

A) True
B) False

13) If the information pane is not open, QTP automatically opens it in case a syntax error is detected.

A) True
B) False

14) ..................... provides a list of the resources that are specified in your test but cannot be found.

A) Missing pane
B) Missing Resources pane
C) Resources pane
D) Missing Items pane

15) Whenever you open a test or a function library, QTP automatically checks for the availiblity of specified resources.

A) True
B) False

16) The Data Table does not assists you in parameterizing your test.

A) True
B) False

17) Tabs in the Debug Viewer pane are:

A) Watch, Variables, Debug
B) Watch, Data, Command
C) Watch, Variables, Command
D) View, Variables, Command

18) ............... tab enables you to view the current value of any variable or VBScript expression.

A) Watch
B) VIew
C) Locate
D) Current

19) The .... tab displays the current value of all variables that have been recognized up to the last step performed in the run session.

A) View
B)Variables
C) Locate
D) Current

20) The .........tab enables you to run a line of script to set or modify the current value of a variable or VBScript object in your test or function library.

A) View
B) Variables
C) Command
D) Current

Answers

11) B, 12) A, 13) A, 14) B, 15) A, 16) B, 17) C, 18) A, 19) B, 20) C

Quality Center Questions 13

2008-02-15T18:32:00.000-08:00

121)
You can add a new defect to a Quality Center project from any module at any stage of the testing process.

A) True
B) False

122)
There are two methods you can use to conduct a search for similar/related defects:

A) Find parallel Defects & Find parallel Text.
B) Find related Defects & Find related Text.
C) Find Similar Defects & Find Similar Text.
D) Find all Defects & Find all Text.

123)
You can update defects directly in the ......, or in the ..... dialog box.

A) Defects Grid
B) Defects Detail
C) Defects Module
D) Both A & B
E) Both B & C

124)
You can only see changes made to a defect for selected fields predefined by the project administrator in Project Customization.

A) True
B) False

125)
By default, Quality Center sends e-mail in HTML format. To send
e-mail as plain text instead, edit the parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration

A) M_FORMAT
B) MAIL_FORMAT_ID
C) MAIL_FORM
D) MAIL_FORMAT

126)
You can link a defect to the run steps and other defects.

A) True
B) False

127)
You can only remove direct links from the Linked Defects grid. Indirect links are removed automatically when the direct links are removed.

A) True
B) False

128)
Quality Center reports can be generated from the

A) Requirements,Test Plan,Test Lab,Defects modules.
B) Requirements,Test Plan,Defects modules.
C) Requirements & Test Plan modules.
D) Requirements,Test Plan,Test Lab modules.

129)
You can export grid data as a text file, Microsoft Excel spreadsheet, Microsoft Word document, or HTML document. You export data from the

A) Requirements Grid & Defects Grid.
B) Requirements Grid,Execution Grid, or Defects Grid.
C) Requirements Grid, Test Grid, Execution Grid, or Defects Grid.
D) Requirements Grid, Test Grid, Execution Grid.

130)
How many Reports (Not Sub-Reports) are available in Requirements module.

A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 4

Answers

121) A , 122) C , 123) D, 124) A , 125) D , 126) A , 127) A , 128) A , 129) C , 130) B

Quality Center Questions 12

2008-02-15T11:17:00.000-08:00

111)
You can view the test results from the ...........

A) Test Instance dialog box.
B) Test Properties dialog box
C) Test Instance Properties dialog box
D) None

112)
The Linked Defects view on the sidebar of Test Instance Properties dialog box displays:

A) linked defects and requirements coverage for a test instance
B) only linked defects for a test instance
C) linked defects and history for a test instance
D) linked defects and test results for a test instance

113)
Quality Center enables you to compare the results of a test run with the results of previous runs.

A) True
B) False

114)
In the Test Instance Properties dialog box, You can view and edit the On Failure rules for an automated test instance using the ..... view.

A) Automated
B) Details
C) Run Events
D) Both A & C

115)
You track defects in the Quality Center Defects module, which you open by clicking the ...... button on the sidebar.

A) Track Defects
B) Open Defects
C) Defects
D) Log Defects

116)
To find a specific defect by Defect ID in the Defects Grid, choose ....

A) Defects > Defect
B) Defects > Move To Defect
C) Defects > Set Defect
D) Defects > Go To Defect

117)
Each line in the Defects Grid displays a separate defect record.

A) True
B) False

118)
You cannot add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Defects Grid.

A) True
B) False

119)
You can use the ......... to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Defects Grid.

A) Scripting Editor
B) Notepad Editor
C) QC Editor
D) Script Editor

120)
You can link defects to other Quality Center entities, such as requirements, tests and other defects.

A) True
B) False

111) c, 112) a, 113) a, 114) c, 115) c, 116) d, 117) a, 118) b, 119) d, 120) a

Quality Center Questions 11

2008-02-15T11:16:00.000-08:00

101)
The Execution Flow tab enables you to watch the execution process as it happens and to control the way your tests are executed.

A) True
B) False

102)
In the Execution Flow, a dashed line -- -- -> arrow indicates that the test

A) is to be executed after the previous test, with no conditions.
B) is to be executed only if the previous test has status Finished
C) is to be executed only if the previous test has status Passed
D) None

103)
You can delete a ....execution condition(s) connected to a test.

A) Single
B) Two
C) Three
D) All

104)
When we Run a test, in the Manual Test Run window, by default which option is selected

A) Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the
Execute Grid)
B) Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the
Executing Grid)
C) Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the
Execution Grid)
D) Manual Runner (Run according to the order in the
Execution Grind)

105)
You can assign multiple values to a parameter during a test run.

A) True
B) False

106)
If a manual test run was paused during execution, you can continue the run at a later stage.

A) True
B) False

107)
You can run tests automatically on ......

A) Your machine
B) Remote Hosts
C) Both A & B
D) None

108)
To run several test sets concurrently on multiple remote hosts, open a new Automatic Runner dialog box instance for each test set.

A) Auto Runner
B) Automate Runner
C) Automatic Runner
D) Manual Runner

109)
When you run QuickTest Professional tests from the Test Lab module, they are automatically run in Fast mode. They cannot be run in Normal mode.

A) True
B) False

110)
You can only view the Execution Log even if you did not select Enable Log in the Automatic Runner dialog box before you executed the test.

A) True
B) False

101) a, 102) a, 103) d, 104) c, 105) b, 106) a, 107) c, 108) c, 109) a, 110) b

QTP Questions 1

2008-02-15T04:31:00.000-08:00

1) 'Browser navigation timeout' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings) window.

A) Properties
B) Resources
C) Web
D) Web Settings

2) How many tabs are there in Test Settings (File->Settings) window

A) 7
B) 6
C) 5
D) 8

3) Identify the tabs in the Test Settings (File->Settings) window

A) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
B) Properties, Run, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web Settings,Recovery
C) Properties, Run Options, Resources, Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery
D) Properties, Run, Resources, Input Parameters, Environment, Web, Recovery

4) 'Generate Script' is in which tab of Test Settings (File->Settings) window

A) Properties
B) Web
C) Resources
D) Recovery

5) The following are the four main columns in the Keyword view

A) Item, Operation, Value, Comments
B) Item, Operation, Value, Documentation
C) Item, Operation, Property, Documentation
D) Number, Operation, Value, Documentation

6) For each object and method in an Expert View statement, a corresponding row exists in the Keyword View.

A) True
B) False
C) There is a problem with the statement.
D) None of above

7) You can work on one or several function libraries at the same time.

A) True
B) False

8) You can insert additional steps on the test objects captured in the Active screen after the recording session.

A) True
B) False

9) The Active Screen enables you to parameterize object values and insert checkpoints

A) True
B) False

10) A QTP user can increase or decrease the active screen information saved with the test.

A) True
B) False

Answers

1) C, 2) A, 3) A, 4) A, 5) b, 6) A, 7) A, 8) A, 9) A, 10) A

Quality Center Questions 10

2008-02-15T04:10:00.000-08:00

91) Using Quality Center Test Lab module, executing tests also consists of ....

A) Run Tests Automatically
B) Run Tests Manually
C) Both A and B
D) None of above

92) You can access the Test Lab menu bar from the Test Lab module by pressing the shortcut key......

A) F6
B) F7
C) F8
D) F9

93) The Test Lab module includes the following toolbars:

A) Test Set and Select Tests
B) Test Select and Set Tests
C) Set Test and Tests Select
D) None of above

94) In the Test Lab Module, in Execution Grid Columns, the column Exec Date means

A) The date on which the test was first executed.
B) The date on which the test was last executed
C) The date on which the test was executed
D) The date on which the test will be executed in future

95) You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Execution Grid.

A) True
B) False

96) You can organize test execution by creating ........

A) test modules
B) test flows
C) test beds
D) test sets

97) While creating test sets, after you design tests in the Test Plan module, you create a ..........

A) test sets tree
B) test sets flow
C) test sets grid
D) test sets rows

98) By default, the uppermost level in a test sets tree is the ..........

A) Level 0 folder
B) Top folder
C) Highest level folder
D) Root folder

99) You can also use the ............. in the Test Instance Properties dialog box (Changing the Default Failure Rules for Specific Tests) to set the on failure rules for a test in a test set.

A) Run Events view
B) Run Events Grid
C) Run Events menu
D) Run Events module

100) You can also drag the test sets between lists.

A) True
B) False

Answers

1) C, 2) D, 3) A, 4) B, 5) A, 6) D, 7) A, 8) D, 9) A, 10) A

Quality Center Questions 9

2008-02-14T04:59:00.000-08:00

81) Test coverage is created automatically when you generate a requirement from a test.

A) True
B) False

82) In the Requirements module, you can use the ........ view to examine the status of your requirements.

A) Coverage Analysis
B) Coverage Breakdown
C) Requirements Status
D) Coverage Status

83) By default, coverage is available only for the following requirement types: ......

A) Functional, Testing, and Defined.
B) Functional, Testing, and Undefined.
C) Functional, System, and Undefined.
D) Functional, Review, and Undefined.

84) You can create design steps for ..........

A) manual and
B) automated tests
C) SRS
D) Both A and B

85) To increase the flexibility and power of a test, you can add ........to the called test and to the tests that call it.

A) Input Values
B) Output Values
C) Parameters
D) None of above

86) You do not need to set a test as a template test to be able to call it or to add parameters. Marking a test as a template test is used for filtering purposes only.

A) True,
B) False

87) If you do not assign values to parameters when creating a test call, you are prompted to do so when you call this test from another test, when you add your test to a test set, or when you run your test.

A) True
B) False

88) You can navigate between steps in the Design Step Editor using shortcut keys. Use ...... to access the first step.

A) ALT+LEFT
B) ALT+RIGHT
C) ALT+HOME
D) ALT+ UP

89) While generating automated test scripts, what does WR-AUTOMATED automated test type means.

A) A test that is created by Winrunner
B) A test that is executed by Winrunner
C) A test that is deleted by Winrunner
D) None of above

90) To run a system test, you must install the System Execute Remote Agent Add-in and the HP Quality Center Connectivity Add-in on the machine where the test is to be run.

A) True
B) False

Answers

81) B, 82) A, 83) B, 84) D, 85) C, 86) A, 87) A, 88) C, 89) B, 90) B

Quality Center Questions 8

2008-02-13T04:59:00.001-08:00

71) To set a QuickTest Professional test as a template test, right-click the test in the test plan tree, and choose ......

A) Template Test
B) Template Tree
C) Template Plan
D) Template

72) You can change the label of any of the test detail fields.

A) True
B) False

73) A question mark icon in the test plan tree indicates that the QuickTest Professional add-in is ....... on your machine.

A) not activated
B) not installed
C) not enabled
D) not set

74) A ...... link is included in the e-mail, enabling the recipient to go directly to the test.

A) Link To Test
B) Move To Test
C) Go To Test
D) Test

75) In the Test Plan module, you create ....... by selecting requirements to link to a test.

A) RTM
B) requirements coverage
C) test coverage
D) SRS

76) Alternatively, in the Requirements module, you create ...... by selecting tests to link to a requirement.

A) RTM
B) requirements coverage
C) test coverage
D) SRS

77) A test can cover more than one requirement, and a requirement can be covered by only one test.

A) True
B) False

78) You can also create coverage between test instances and requirements. You can enable this feature using the ........... parameter in Site Administration

A) ALLOW_REQ_COVERAGE_BY_TEST_INSTANCE
B) ALLOW_TEST_COVERAGE_BY_REQ_INSTANCE
C) ALLOW_R_COVERAGE_BY_T_INSTANCE
D) None of above

79) Requirements coverage is created automatically when you convert a requirement to a test. Therefore, even if you have not yet added
requirements coverage, it may already exist.

A) True
B) False

80) You can also define requirements coverage by dragging a requirement in the requirements tree to the coverage grid. The requirement is added to the coverage grid without its child requirements.

A) True
B) False

Answers

71) A, 72) A, 73) B, 74) C, 75) B, 76) C, 77) B, 78) A, 79) A, 80)

Quality Center Questions 7

2008-02-12T06:14:00.000-08:00

61) During Requirement Risks calculation, the ..... displays the requirements for which you did not determine a Risk Category or exclude explicitly from the analysis

A) missing assessment link
B) missing assessment field
C) missing assessment value
D) missing assessment relation

62) A good test plan enables you to assess the quality of your application ....... in the testing process.

A) at the beginning
B) at the end
C) at the point
D) at the middle

63) Which of the item is not a part of "Developing a test plan" in QC.

A) Design Test Steps
B) Design Tests
C) Automate Tests
D) Define Testing Policy Settings

64) You can access the Test Plan menu bar from the Test Plan module by pressing the shortcut key .....

A) F7
B) F9
C) F12
D) F11

65) To find a specific test by Test ID in the Test Grid, choose ......, and enter the test ID

A) Test > Go to Test
B) Test > find Test
C) Test > search Test
D) Test > link Test

66) In relation to a test plan module, You can add user-defined fields and change the label of any of the fields in the Test Grid

A) True,
B) False

67) You can use the ..... to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Test Grid.

A) text editor
B) script editor
C) scriptor editor
D) scripts editor

68) The typical application is too large to test as a whole. The Test Plan module enables you to divide your application according to ........

A) functionality
B) requirements
C) test plans
D) test modules

69) During the testing process, you may need to modify your test plan. You can update the test plan tree ......

A) at the beginning
B) at the end
C) at any time
D) in the middle

70) Developing and editing a test plan tree requires appropriate user ......

A) IDs
B) requirements
C) permissions
D) passwords

Answers

61) A, 62) C, 63) D, 64) B, 65) A, 66) A, 67) B, 68) A, 69) C, 70) C

Quality Center Questions 6

2008-02-11T06:08:00.000-08:00

51) Each requirement type with risk-based quality management enabled supports either.

A) risk analysis or risk assessment
B) risk breakdown or risk assessment
C) risk breakdown or risk review
D) risk analysis or risk evaluation

52) Performing a risk-based quality management analysis for an analysis requirement involves the following steps

A) Determine Risk groups, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy
B) Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing guidelines Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy
C) Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing guidelines, Analyze Testing Strategy
D) Determine Risk Categories, Define Testing Policy Settings, Finalize Testing Policy, Analyze Testing Strategy

53) An ...... requirement is a requirement belonging to a type that represents higher levels in the requirements tree hierarchy, such as the Folder type.

A) analysis
B) assessment
C) Policy
D) Test

54) An ....... requirement is a requirement belonging to a type that represents requirements that are children of analysis requirements and at a lower level in the requirements tree hierarchy.

A) analysis
B) assessment
C) Policy
D) Test

55) For each assessment requirement under the analysis requirement, you determine the Risk Category. The Risk Category is composed of two factors.

A) Business Probability and Failure Criticality
B) Business Vitality and Failure Probability
C) Business Criticality and Failure Probability
D) Business Criticality and Failure Possibility

56) The Business Criticality of a requirement has three possible values:.....

A) Critical, Important, Nice to Have
B) Critical, Importance, Nice to Have
C) Critical, Important, Nice to Had
D) None of these

57) The Failure Probability of a requirement has three possible values:...

A) High, Standard, Low
B) High, Average, Low
C) High, Medium, Low
D) None of these

58) Quality Center defines four Testing Levels:.

A) Full, Partial, Basic, and Low
B) Full, Partial, Basic, and None
C) Full, Half, Basic, and None
D) Full, Partial, Critical, and None

59) The Business Criticality of a requirement is a measure of how likely a test on the requirement is to fail, based on the technical complexity of the requirement’s implementation, without consideration of the requirement’s impact on the business.

A) True
B) False

60) The Failure Probability of a requirement is a measure of how important the requirement is to your business

A) True
B) False

Answers

51) A, 52) D, 53) A, 54) B, 55) C, 56) A, 57) C, 58) B, 59) B, 60) B

Quality Center Questions 5

2008-02-10T04:18:00.000-08:00

41) By default, Quality Center sends e-mail in HTML format. To send e-mail as plain text instead, edit the ……. parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.

A) EMAIL_FORMAT
B) EMAIL_FORM
C) MAIL_FORMAT
D) QC_MAIL_FORMAT

42) You can copy a requirement within the same project or between projects. Which of the below items are copied at the time of copying a requirement.

A) Test coverage.
B) defect linkage.
C) risk-based quality management data
D) All of above
E) None of above

43) You can also move a requirement to a new location in the requirements tree by dragging it..

A) True
B) False

44) You can delete a requirement from the Requirements module. Deleting a requirement does not delete its child requirements, tests coverage, requirement traceability links, and defects linkage..

A)True
B) False

45) There are two methods you can use to create tests from requirements:

A) Convert Requirements to Tests & Generate a Test from Requirements
B) Convert Requirements to Tests & Convert a Test from Requirements
C) Convert Requirements to Tests & Generate a Requirement from Tests
D) Convert a Test from Requirements & Generate Requirements to Tests

46) When analyzing the impact of a change proposed in a specific requirement, the traceability links indicate the other ...... that the change might affect.

A) tests
B) requirements
C) tests & requirements
D) None

47) ...... links indicate requirements that affect a selected requirement. .....links indicate requirements that are affected by a selected requirement.

A) Trace from, Trace to
B) Trace to, Trace from
C) From trace, To trace
D) None of above

48) When a requirement changes, Quality Center alerts the affected requirements. The alerts can be seen by.......

A) Author of the requirement
B) users authorized by the Author of the requirement
C) all users
D) Administrator

49) while Defining Traceability Relationships, You cannot add a requirement traceability link by dragging a requirement from the requirements tree to the appropriate grid..

A) True
B) False

50) While viewing Traceability Impact, the Impact Analysis tab helps you understand the many associations and dependencies that exist between the ........ by displaying them in a hierarchical tree structure.

A) Tests
B) Requirements
C) Both
D) None

Answers

41) C, 42) E, 43) A, 44) B, 45) A, 46) B, 47) A, 48) C, 49) B, 50) B

Quality Center Questions 4

2008-02-09T01:53:00.000-08:00

31) QA Manager changes a requirement from a ……….. status to a Reviewed status once it is approved.

A) Released
B) Tested
C) Not reviewed
D) None of these

32) You can also import requirements to your Quality Center project from Microsoft Word, Excel, or other third-party requirement management tools. To import requirements, you must first install the appropriate………

A) HP Third Party add-in.
B) HP Quality Center add-in.
C) HP Quality Center
D) HP Quality Center License

33) The Requirements Grid view enables you to display requirements in a …………….view.

A) Flat
B) Hierarchical
C) Flat-hierarchical
D) Flat non-hierarchical

34) The …………view enables you to analyze the breakdown of child requirements according to test coverage status..

A) Coverage Analysis
B) Coverage Requirements
C) Coverage
D) Coverage Tests

35) You can access the Requirements menu bar from the Requirements module by pressing the shortcut key …….

A) F1
B) F9
C) Ctrl + R
D) Alt + R

36) You can use the ………to restrict and dynamically change the fields and values in the Requirements module.

A) Script Edit
B) Scriptor Editor
C) Script Editor
D) Script Editing

37) The Requirements module enables you to define and manage your……...

A) requirements
B) All requirements
C) some requirements
D) Tedious requirements

38) You can rename or delete Requirements root folder.

A) true
B) False

39) You can search for a particular requirement in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid using the …….command.

A) Search
B) Find
C) Search All
D) Find All

40) You can replace field values in the requirements tree or in the requirements grid using the …….command.

A) Replace
B) Replace All
C) Find & Replace
D) Replace & Find

Answers

31) C, 32) B, 33) D, 34) A, 35) B, 36) C, 37) A, 38) B, 39) B, 40) A

Quality Center Questions 3

2008-02-08T01:47:00.000-08:00

21) You can view a list of alerts for a ………… entity.

A) A test in the test plan tree or Test Grid
B) A test instance in the Execution Grid
C) None of above
D) Both A) & B)

22) A red flag indicates that the alert is.........

A) New
B) Old
C) Follow up
D) Urgent

23) A gray flag indicates that the alert ………..

A) New
B) has already been read
C) Follow up
D) Urgent

24) A follow up flag is specific to your user login name. Anyone else viewing the record does not see your follow up alert.

A) True
B) False

25) Quality Center assigns the image a unique file name with a ..... extension.

A) .jpeg
B) .gif
C) .doc
D) .jpg

26) A ………..is a view of a Quality Center window with the settings you apply to it.

A) Personal View
B) My view
C) Favorite View
D) My QC View

27) You save favorite views in ........

A) Favorite folder
B) Personal folder
C) Both A) & B)
D) Public & Private folder

28) You can define the number of views displayed on the menu by setting the …………….. parameter in the Site Configuration tab in Site Administration.

A) favorites
B) favorites_Depth
C) favorites_view
D) favorites_Path

29) The requirements specification workflow consists of the following:

A) Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Detail Requirements, Assign to Releases, Analyze Requirements
B) Define Testing Scope, Detail Requirements, Create Requirements, Assign to Releases, Analyze Requirements
C) Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Detail Requirements, Analyze Requirements, Assign to Releases
D) Define Testing Scope, Create Requirements, Analyze Requirements, Detail Requirements, Assign to Releases

30) Requirement topics are recorded in the Requirements module by creating a

A) Requirements cycle
B) Requirements tree
C) Requirements plan
D) Requirements module

Answers

21) D, 22) A, 23) B, 24) A, 25) D, 26) C, 27) D, 28) B, 29) A, 30) B

Quality Center Questions 2

2008-02-07T23:31:00.000-08:00

11) By default, records appear in Quality Center in the

A) Increasing Order
B) Decreasing Order
C) Order in which they were added
D) None of these

12) You can save filter and sort information as a favorite view and then load it as needed.

A) True
B) False

13) You can copy and paste the filter, sort, and group by settings to another project.

A) True
B) False

14) You can also share the settings (filter, sort, and group by settings) with another user by pasting them to an e-mail or a text file.

A) True
B) False

15) When you use text search, the search ignores

A) articles (a, an, the)
B) coordinate conjunctions (and, but, for, nor, or);
C) Boolean operators (and, or, not, if, or, then).
D) All of above

16) You can export the data in a grid as a

A) text file,
B) Microsoft Excel worksheet,
C) Microsoft Word document, or
D) HTML document.
E) All of above

17) …….. alerting functions available in Quality Center

A) Three
B) Four
C) Two
D) Five

18) The alerting functions in Quality Center are:

A) Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
B) Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
C) Defect alerts, Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts
D) Final alerts, Email alerts, Automatic notification alerts, Follow up alerts

19) You can create traceability links between ……….. in the Requirements module.

A) Requirements
B) Test Cases
C) Tests
D) Defects

20) You can associate a test instance with a defect. This is performed by creating ………..in the Test Plan module, or by adding a defect during a manual test run.

A) Linked Tests
B) Linked Defects
C) Linked Errors
D) Linked Data

Answers

11) C, 12) A, 13) A, 14) B, 15) D, 16) E, 17) C, 18) A, 19) A, 20) B

Quality Center Questions 1

2008-02-06T23:29:00.000-08:00

1) Test management with Quality Center involves …. Phases.

A) Four
B) Five
C) Six
D) Seven

2) The phases of Test management with Quality Center in order are:

A) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects
B) Specify Requirements, Specify Releases, Plan Tests, Execute Tests, Track Defects
C) Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Specify Releases, Execute Tests, Track Defects
D) Specify Releases, Specify Requirements, Plan Tests, Track Defects, Execute Tests

3) By creating a list of authorized users and assigning each user a password and user group, you control the kinds of additions and modifications each user makes to the project.

A) True
B) False

4) The …….determines the privileges that the user has within a project.

A) User ID
B) User Name
C) User group
D) User SID

5) You can import data from Word or Excel to a Quality Center project.

A) True
B) False

6) Quality Center 9.2 prompts you to install Microsoft .NET ...... if it is not already installed on your machine.

A) Framework 2.0
B) Framework 1.0
C) Framework 3.0
D) Framework 4.0

7) When you connect to a project, the Quality Center main window opens and displays the module in which you were last working.

A) True
B) False

8) The ….can change and override a user’s properties or password.

A) Global Administrator
B) Site Administrator
C) Administrator
D) QC Administrator

9) You can filter Quality Center data to display only those records that meet the criteria that you define. How many filters can you define

A) Single item as a filter
B) Two items as a filter
C) Multiple items as filter
D) Five items as filter

10) In the test plan tree, you can define the ……filter for associated test sets as “Open”. This ensures that only tests that belong to an open test set are displayed.

A) Double
B) Twice
C) Cross
D) Multiple

Answers

1) B, 2) A, 3) A, 4) C, 5) A, 6) A, 7) A, 8) B, 9) C, 10) C